Category: Uncategorized

general business data bank

general business data bank

Question
	
91. If a company
finds that a consumer has chosen a competitive
product over their company’s
offering, one way to get the consumer back could be by developing a strategy
wherein the company “shifts the
buyer’s ideals” on one or more
levels. 



92. With noncompensatory
models of consumer choice, positive
and negative 




attribute considerations usually net out.



 



93. Volvo has the reputation for being one of the most “safe” cars on the road. For those that value
safety, Volvo would be the logical choice. The preceding is an example of the lexicographic heuristic of consumer
choice. 



 



94. If a product poses a threat
to the physical well being of a consumer, this is calledpsychological risk.



 



95. A key driver of sales
frequency is the adoption rate. 






96. With respect to a
consumer-buying situation that involves variety-seeking behavior, the market
leader can encourage variety seeking by offering lower prices or deals.



97. Many products are bought under conditions
of low involvement. This means that the consumer does not touch them except
from a distance. 



 



98.
A rule of thumb is called a heuristic. 



 



99. In
the anchoring heuristic, the consumer bases his or her predictions on the
quickness and ease with which a particular example
of an outcome comes to mind. 



100. Prospect theory
maintains that consumers frame decision alternatives in terms of gains and
losses according to a value function. 



 







Essay 






101. Explain the differences between culture, subculture, and social
class. 



  






102.
 What is a reference group? Describe
three different types of reference groups
that can have an impact on a
consumer’s purchasing behavior. 






 



 



103. What
is brand personality and what five traits have been linked to it? 






 



104. Briefly, explain Freud’s theory on human motivation and how this might be related to
marketing. 






 



105. List and
briefly characterize Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs. 










 



 



106. People can emerge with
different perceptions of the same object because of three perceptual processes.
List and briefly characterize those processes. 









107. What are the five stages of the consumer
buying process? 









108. How
is the expectancy-value model used
in the evaluation of alternatives 



 as a consumer engages in a buying
process? 



 






109. Gordon
Jones is considering purchasing a computer
from Best Buy. He has created a scale whereby he has rated eight different computers on three different characteristics. Gordon
has decided that for a computer to
make his short-list, it must score at least a seven on his scale on all three
characteristics. Describe the type of choice heuristic that Mr. Jones is using
as he selects a computer. 



110. Heuristics can come into play when consumers
forecast the likelihood of future outcomes or events. When would a consumer use
an anchoring and adjustment heuristic?

general business data bank

general business data bank

Question



1. Performance evaluation in most firms is
applied at:






A.
Many different levels from top
management down to individual production and sales employees. 



B.
All levels of
production, but only top levels of sales. 



C.
Top and mid-management
levels only. 



D.
Lower and mid-management
levels only. 



E.
The mid-management level
only. 






2. Risk aversion is by:






A.
Lack of a strategic emphasis in decision
making. 



B.
Use of non-strategic
performance measurement systems. 



C.
Presence of uncertainty
in a manager's environment. 



D.
A manager's inability to
deal with stress. 






3. The
process by which managers at all levels in the firm gain information about the
performance of tasks within the firm and judge that performance against
pre-established criteria is: 






A.
Performance measurement. 



B.
Employee inspection. 



C.
Goal congruence. 



D.
Managerial evaluation. 



E.
Management control. 






4. Operational control has a
management-by-exception approach in contrast to management control, which is
more consistent with:






A.
The management-by-incentives approach. 



B.
The
management-by-objectives approach. 



C.
The "hands
off" approach. 



D.
A non-quantitative set
of measures. 



E.
A non-qualitative set of
measures. 






5. A
strategic business unit (SBU) consists of a well-defined set of controllable
operating activities over/about which the SBU manager is: 






A.
Knowledgeable. 



B.
Responsible for
strategy. 



C.
Responsible for strategy
and execution. 



D.
Responsible for
strategy, execution, and performance. 






6. The objectives of management control of the
manager include:






A.
Cost, quality, and functionality. 



B.
Management by
objectives. 



C.
Management by exception.




D.
Motivation, incentive
and fairness. 



E.
Identification, response
and performance. 






7. The principal-agent economic model applied to
employment contracts deals primarily with the two management performance
aspects of:






A.
Rights and duties. 



B.
Uncertainty and lack of
observability. 



C.
Performance and reward. 



D.
Controllability and
responsibility. 



E.
Risk and motivation. 






8. The "risk-averse" manager will be
improperly biased to:






A.
Seek out decisions with uncertain
outcomes. 



B.
Make risky decisions. 



C.
Avoid decisions with
uncertain outcomes. 



D.
Maximize his or her own
risk and minimize the company's risk. 



E.
Use resources beyond
his/her control. 






9. In
properly developing formal systems at the team level that will have the desired
impact on employees' performance, the management accountant should recognize
any existing informal systems and: 






A.
Make plans to eliminate these informal
systems. 



B.
Simply formalize them
into the system being developed. 



C.
Try to eliminate them
prior to system development. 



D.
Not let these
"culture" aspects affect system development. 



E.
Try to capture valued
"culture" aspects in the formal system. 






10.
The common factor among control systems in hiring practices, promotion
policies, and strategic performance measurement is:






A.
Management sets expectations for desired
employee performance. 



B.
Employee-determined
expectations for desired employee performance. 











C.
Coordination of activities. 



D.
Communication of
results. 






11.
Among the benefits of centralized management in a firm is (are):






A.
Effective goal congruence. 



B.
Utilization of top
management expertise. 



C.
Effective participation
by all levels of management. 



D.
A higher level of
motivation for divisional managers. 






12.
The benefits of decentralized management in a firm include all the following except:






A.
Ability of SBU managers to use their
local knowledge effectively. 



B.
Ability of SBU managers
to make more timely decisions. 



C.
Motivation provided by
the freedom and responsibility of a decentralized environment. 



D.
Improved coordination
among divisional managers. 






13.
The need for coordination between the production and the selling function will
impact the choice of:






A.
Profit, cost or revenue center. 



B.
Manager for the firm. 



C.
Formal or informal
control systems. 



D.
Profitability goal for
the firm. 



E.
Control measures to
prevent fraud. 






14.
By not distinguishing between direct and indirect costs in their performance
reporting, many companies:






A.
Generate more useful control potential
for managers. 



B.
Can cause poor
decision-making. 



C.
Focus on long-term
results. 



D.
Focus on short-term
results. 



E.
Clearly distinguish
between controllable and non-controllable costs. 






15.
As a strategic issue, "budget slack" could represent a:






A.
Very minor issue in most firms. 



B.
Self-correcting problem
over several operating periods. 



C.
Problem only in a
decentralized management environment. 



D.
Lower overall level of
expected performance than is achievable. 



E.
Significant increase in
the relative risk aversion of managers. 






16.
"Outsourcing" a cost center is often done to:






A.
Reduce cost and obtain strategic focus. 



B.
Increase control over a
strategic resource. 



C.
Reduce the firm's
contractual relationships. 



D.
Shift costs within
remaining cost centers. 






17. Cost
allocation of service department costs to production departments make the
evaluation and control processes in the production departments: 






A.
Simpler. 



B.
More complex. 



C.
Forthright and fair. 



D.
Less efficient. 



E.
Counter productive. 






18.
From a strategic standpoint, profit centers tend to:






A.
Free the center manager from concerns
about markets. 



B.
Place more cost emphasis
on rush orders. 



C.
Provide incentive for
coordination among managers of different units. 



D.
Focus managers on cost
control rather than revenue generation. 



E.
All of the above answers
are correct. 






19.
The contribution by profit center (CPU) expands the contribution margin income
statement by distinguishing:






A.
Variable and fixed costs. 



B.
Short-term and long-term
fixed costs. 



C.
Controllable and
non-controllable fixed costs. 



D.
Noncontrollable and
untraceable fixed costs. 



E.
Net income and
contribution margin. 






20.
The main concept of the
balanced scorecard is that, to evaluate the SBU's progress to strategic
success, a business must use all of the following except: 






A.
Both financial and non-financial
measures. 



B.
Value chain analysis. 



C.
Attend to customer
satisfaction needs. 



D.
Multiple measures for a
comprehensive evaluation. 






21.
In a non-profit organization, you are more likely to see:











A.
Cost centers. 



B.
Revenue centers. 



C.
Profit centers. 



D.
Investment centers. 






22.
The evaluation by upper-level managers of the performance of mid-level managers
is:






A.
Performance evaluation. 



B.
Operational control. 



C.
Goal congruence. 



D.
Principal-agent model. 



E.
Management control. 






23.
The evaluation of operating level employees by mid-level managers is:






A.
Performance evaluation. 



B.
Operational control. 



C.
Goal congruence. 



D.
Principal-agent model. 



E.
Management control. 






24.
The manager acting independently in such a way as to simultaneously achieve top
management's objectives is:






A.
Performance evaluation. 



B.
Operational control. 



C.
Goal congruence. 



D.
Principal-agent model. 



E.
Management control. 






25.
A model that has been
used to better understand the key elements that contracts must have in order to
achieve the desired objectives is the: 






A.
Performance evaluation. 



B.
Operational control. 



C.
Goal congruence. 



D.
Principal-agent model. 



E.
Management control. 






26.
Order-filling costs:






A.
Include samples. 



B.
Cannot often be
effectively managed as an engineered-cost center. 



C.
Usually have a
relatively clear relationship to sales volume. 



D.
Include commissions. 






27.
Controllable margin is determined by subtracting short-term controllable fixed
costs from the:






A.
Long-term controllable fixed cost. 



B.
Contribution margin. 



C.
Variable costs. 



D.
Fixed costs. 



E.
Variable costs and fixed
costs. 






28.
An employment contract
is an agreement between the manager and top management designed to provide
incentives for the manager to act: 






A.
Independently to achieve top
management's objectives. 



B.
Consistently with that
of other managers. 



C.
Independently to achieve
the manager's objectives. 



D.
Independently to achieve
the customer's objectives. 






29.
The least common type of SBU in a retail firm is the:






A.
Profit center. 



B.
Cost center. 



C.
Revenue center. 



D.
Investment center. 






30.
Which one of the following is a drawback of decentralization?






A.
Uses local knowledge only. 



B.
May hinder coordination
among independent SBUs. 



C.
Provides better
management control. 



D.
Provides goal
congruence. 



E.
Offers an efficient
method of performance evaluation. 






31.
Production or support SBUs within the firm that have the goal of providing the
best quality product or service at the lowest cost are:






A.
Revenue centers. 



B.
Contribution centers. 



C.
Profit centers. 



D.
Cost centers. 











E.
Investment centers.






32.
SBUs that generate revenues and incur the major portion of the cost for
producing those revenues are:






A.
Revenue centers. 



B.
Contribution centers. 



C.
Profit centers. 



D.
Cost centers. 



E.
Investment centers. 






33.
SBUs that include the assets they employ as well as profits in the performance
evaluation are:






A.
Revenue centers. 



B.
Contribution centers. 



C.
Profit centers. 



D.
Cost centers. 



E.
Investment centers. 






34.
The replacing of controllable costs with non-controllable costs by a department
is:






A.
Budget slack. 



B.
Cost shifting. 



C.
Outsourcing. 



D.
Discretionary-cost
method. 



E.
Engineered-cost
approach. 






35.
For production and support departments, a method of implementing cost centers
that is input-oriented is the:






A.
Budget slack. 



B.
Cost shifting approach. 



C.
Outsourcing approach. 



D.
Discretionary-cost
method. 



E.
Engineered-cost
approach. 






36.
For production and support departments, a method of implementing cost centers
that is output-oriented is the:






A.
Budget slack method. 



B.
Cost shifting approach. 



C.
Outsourcing approach. 



D.
Discretionary-cost
method. 



E.
Engineered-cost
approach. 






37.
Expenditures of revenue centers usually include:






A.
Order-purchasing costs. 



B.
Order-getting costs. 



C.
Order-producing costs. 



D.
Order-scheduling costs. 



E.
Order-delivering costs. 






38.
The balanced scorecard measures the SBU's performance in all of the following
areas except:






A.
Learning and growth. 



B.
Managerial performance. 



C.
Customer satisfaction. 



D.
Internal business
processes. 



E.
Accounting and tax
compliance. 






39. Bilbo
owned two adjoining restaurants, the Pork Palace and the Chicken Hut. Each
restaurant was treated as a profit center for performance evaluation purposes.
Although the restaurants had separate kitchens, they shared a central baking
facility. The principal costs of the baking area included materials, supplies,
labor, and depreciation and maintenance on the equipment. Bilbo allocated the
monthly costs of the baking facility to the two restaurants based on the number
of tables served in each restaurant during the month using dual allocation and
equal sharing of fixed costs. In April, the costs were $40,000, of which
$16,000 were fixed. The Pork Palace served 4,400 tables, while the Chicken Hut
served 3,600 tables. 






The amount of joint cost
that should have been allocated to the Pork Palace in April is calculated to
be: 






A.
$8,000. 



B.
$10,800. 



C.
$13,200. 



D.
$18,800. 



E.
$21,200. 






40. Bilbo
owned two adjoining restaurants, the Pork Palace and the Chicken Hut. Each
restaurant was treated as a profit center for performance evaluation purposes.
Although the restaurants had separate kitchens, they shared a central baking
facility. The principal costs of the baking area included materials, supplies,
labor, and depreciation and maintenance on the equipment. Bilbo allocated the
monthly costs of the baking facility to the two restaurants based on the number
of tables served in each restaurant during the month using dual allocation and
equal sharing of fixed costs. In April, the costs were $40,000, of which
$16,000 were fixed. The Pork Palace served 4,400 tables, while the Chicken Hut
served 3,600 tables. 






The amount of the joint
cost that should have been allocated to the Chicken Hut in April is calculated
to be: 














A.
$8,000. 



B.
$10,800. 



C.
$13,200. 









D.
$18,800. 



E.
$21,200.

for wak solution

for wak solution

Question
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BIO145 Marine Biology Lesson 5 Quiz

BIO145 Marine Biology Lesson 5 Quiz

Question
	1
 of 25

Which of the following cell structures of a sponge do not match its function?

































Question

2
 of 25

Sponges and all filter feeders use which of the following as a food source?

































Question

3
 of 25

A larva is best defined as which of the following?

































Question

4
 of 25

Cnidarians share all of these features except which of the following?:

































Question

5
 of 25

Most cnidarians are specialized as

































Question

6
 of 25

Statocysts are structures used in

































Question

7
 of 25

Which of the following surfaces is not found in bilaterally symmetrical animals?

































Question

8
 of 25

The development of bilateral symmetry in invertebrates has particularly influenced the evolution of a more complex

































Question

9
 of 25

Deposit-feeding animals feed on

































Question

10
 of 25

All molluscs

































Question

11
 of 25

The radula and crystalline style of molluscs are part of the

































Question

12
 of 25

Which of the following is a distinctive feature of arthropods?

































Question

13
 of 25

Nematocysts are _______________ found in_______________.

































Question

14
 of 25

Bivalves,
 such as oysters, often secrete smooth material over rough impurities
inside of the shell. The structure that results is a _____________.

































Question

15
 of 25

The vestigial internal shell of a squid is called the _______________.

































Question

16
 of 25

Which of the following animals has a beak?

































Question

17
 of 25

The compound eye of a lobster sees_______________.

































Question

18
 of 25

Which of the following is not an echinoderm?

































Question

19
 of 25

An adult sea star is said to be secondarily radially symmetrical because ________________.

































Question

20
 of 25

If a fisherman wishing to get rid of sea stars chops arms off each that he finds, eventually

































Question

21
 of 25

Copepods occupy what niche in a marine ecosystem?

































Question

22
 of 25

Which
 of the following lifestyle patterns would most benefit from organisms
being hermaphroditic? Animals that _________________.

































Question

23
 of 25

The tube feet of a sea star operate as part of the ___________________.

































Question

24
 of 25

A sea cucumber confuses predators by ________________________.

































Question

25
 of 25

Which of the following animals is the closest evolutionarily to land animals?

Short questions

Short questions

Question
	
1.
A newly hired security manager decides to conduct a risk
analysis of his new company's operations and facilities. Predict how he might
fail to complete an effective analysis.

2. Contrast the differences and similarities between governmental
plans and business continuity plan structures.

uop OI/361 week 3 assignment

uop OI/361 week 3 assignment

Question
	

 

 
 
Week
 Three: Creativity for Innovative Decision Making

 		


 

 
 

 		
 
 
Details

 		
 
 
Due

 		
 
 
Points

 		


 

 
 
Objectives

 		
 
 
1
 

 
1.1
 Identify the four steps
 to changing mental models/mind sets.

 
1.2
 Analyze the mental
 models/mind sets that guide decision making in the workplace.

 
1.3 Compare and contrast the four styles of creative intelligence and
 their influence on organizational decision making.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Reading

 		
 
 
Read Ch. 1 of Creative
 Intelligence.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Reading

 		
 
 
Read Ch. 2 of Creative
 Intelligence.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Reading

 		
 
 
Read the Preface of The
 Power of Impossible Thinking.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Reading

 		
 
 
Read the Introduction of The
 Power of Impossible Thinking.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Reading

 		
 
 
Read Ch. 1 of The
 Power of Impossible Thinking.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Reading

 		
 
 
Read Ch. 2 of The
 Power of Impossible Thinking.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Participation

 		
 
 
Participate in class discussion.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 
3

 		


 

 
 
Learning Team Instructions

 
Creative
 Intelligence Profile

 		
 
 
Complete the Creative Intelligence
 Profile found in Ch. 2 of Creative
 Intelligence.You
 will use this profile inyourWeek Four
 Learning Team assignment.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 

 		


 

 
 
Individual

 
Organizational
 Impact Paper

 

 		
 
 
Select one organization from each of
 the organizational types addressed in the WeekTwo readings—manufacturing
 and the service industry.

 

 
Writea 700- to 1,050-word paper that includes the following:

 

 
·
 Evaluatesthe impact that
 innovation, design, and creativity have on the strategy of the two organizations
 

 
·
 Considersprocesses, products, or
 services of your selected organizations

 

 
Format your paper consistent with
 APAguidelines.

 		
 
 
10/31

 		
 
 
15

general business data bank

general business data bank

Question
	
1. Match the following terms and their
definitions. 



Terms



a. sex



b. gender



c. sexual orientation



d. gender-role standards






Definitions



1. (d) cultural
expectations about appropriate behavior for girls and boys, men and women



2. (a) biologically
based distinctions based on chromosomal information



3. (c) one’s
preference regarding the sex of an intimate partner



4. (b) the
integrated cognitive, social, and emotional schemes associated with being male
or 



female













2. Match each type of empathy with its
definition. 



 Type of Empathy



 a. global empathy



 b. egocentric empathy



 c. empathy for another's feeling



 d. empathy for another's life conditions






 Definition



 1. (b) You
recognize distress in another person and react as if the distress were your
own.



 2. (d) You
experience empathy when you understand the person's circumstances.



 3. (a) You
experience and express distress as a result of witnessing someone else in
distress.



 4. (c) You
react to another's distress in a way that might comfort that person.






3. Match the three processes through
which televised violence has an impact on the viewer and a related consequence.
()



 Processes



 a. observing role models who engage in aggressive action



 b. heightened arousal while viewing violence



 c. modification of beliefs and values






 Consequences



 1. (c) Viewers
expect others to act in an aggressive way toward them.



 2. (a) Viewer
adds new violent behaviors to response repertoire.



 3. (b) Strengthening
of cognitive network between aggressive feelings, memories, and actions 



 occurs
in viewer.






4. According to Damon and Hart’s
developmental model of the self, one can recognize evidence of
self-understanding at each developmental level.
Match the developmental level with the kind of self-understanding that
occurs at that level. ()



 Developmental Level



 a. early school age



 b. middle childhood



 c. early adolescence



 d. later adolescence






 Nature of self-understanding



 1. (d) the
formulation of a personal and social identity which integrates the
characteristics of the 



 self
into a set of beliefs and plans which guide future actions



 2. (b) comparative
assessment of self and others



 3. (a) categorical
and concrete assessment of self



 4. (c) understanding
of the social implications of one’s self characteristics
















5. Match the motive for identification with its definition.)



 Motive for Identification



 a. fear of loss of love



 b. identification with the aggressor



 c. identification to satisfy needs for power and status



 d. identification to increase perceived similarity






 Definition



 1. (c) A
child behaves like a parent in order to achieve a vicarious sense of power.



 2. (b) A
child behaves like a parent in order to protect him- or herself from a parent’s
rage.



 3. (d) A
child behaves like a parent in order to appear to have more of the parent's
positive 



 attributes.



 4. (a) A
child behaves like a parent to ensure a continued, positive, love relationship.

Law question data bank

Law question data bank

Question
	
1.
 The visible, objective context of a
communication is known as:



a.
latent content



b.
manifest content



c.
concept



d.
validity






/



2.
 The operational definition of any variable is
composed of:



a.
the hypothesis



b.
the content analysis



c.
manifest content



d.
attributes






3.
 In
an effort to insure that textbooks for introductory level criminology and
criminal justice courses are gender and race neutral an analysis of the
language was undertaken. Which of the following would be appropriate?



a.
measuring the only the manifest content



b.
measuring the latent content



c.
measuring the number of words used



d.
measuring the number of different
subjects the author uses






/






4.
 In which of the following analyses is content
analysis least likely to be used?



a.
coverage of proposed crime legislation
in your state House of Representatives



b.
the number of references to crime in rap
music



c.
the number of murder convictions in Michigan during 2009



d.
the frequency of “get tough on crime” as
a theme for political speeches 






/



5.
 Which of the following data sources could not
be coded for use in content analysis?



a.
letters to the editor



b.
commentaries by talk show hosts



c.
dissenting opinions in cases dealing
with the death penalty



d.
agency aggregate statistics






/



6.
 When a researcher uses the term “silo
databases” she is referring to:



a.
when data is stacked in linear fashion



b.
the communication link between local law
enforcement and the FBI for the purposes of submitting crime data



c.
stacks of data that are isolated from
each other



d.
data that are stacked in round computer
tape files stacked on each other






/






7.
 The publication produced by the Bureau of
Justice Statistics that includes information about hundreds of justice agency
data sets, characteristics of criminal justice agencies, and perceptions of
crime, to name just a few, is:



a.
the Uniform Crime Reports



b.
the National Crime Victimization Survey



c.
the Sourcebook of Criminal Justice
Statistics



d.
the National Crime Victimization Survey






/






8.
 Dr. Jones is having his Introductory to
Criminal Justice students analyze cartoons. He instructs them to identify the
number of violent acts per show, the type of violent act and the
characteristics of the victim. Dr. Jones is having his students use:



a.
content analysis



b.
secondary data



c.
new data collected by agency staff



d.
nonpublic agency records






/



9.
 Clinic workers in a major Northwest city have
been asked to track the incidence and patterns of STDs in their patients as
part of a research project dealing with public health. They ask a number of
specific questions upon intake but do not ask about their clients’ sexual
partners. The only way to examine patterns in the spread of the STDs is to add
a question to the intake form about the identity of their sexual partners. The
data that was gathered illustrates:



a.
nonpublic agency records



b.
published statistics



c.
new data collected by agency staff



d.
content analysis






/



10.
 Which of the following is not considered to be
a published statistic?



a.
Criminal Victimization in the United States



b.
Sourcebook of Criminal Justice
Statistics



c.
Detroit Police Department call of
service statistics



d.
Correctional Populations in the United States






/



11.
 NCVS data would be helpful in answering all of
the research questions except



a.
What is the average age of sexual
assault victims in urban areas with populations over 100,000?



b.
What is the mean income of families that
are victims of burglary?



c.
Why might an offender change from doing
burglaries to committing home invasions?



d.
What city in the country has the
greatest number of victims of robbery?






/






12.
 FBI statistics and annual reports from the
Federal Bureau of Prisons are examples of:



a.
nonpublic agency records



b.
new data collected by agency staff



c.
published statistics



d.
content analysis






/






13.
 A
researcher is interested in studying the budgeting of money within a police
department in a mid-sized American city. She gains access to the department’s
detailed records of expenditures and human resources. This is an example of
which type of agency records, as described in the text?



a.
published statistics



b.
nonpublic agency records



c.
new data collected by agency staff



d.
content analysis






/










14.
 Which of the following is not a source of
reliability and validity problems with agency records?



a.
changes in definitions of crime over
time



b.
agency data are not designed for
research



c.
agency data are designed to track
patterns, not people



d.
data entry errors






/






15.
 Which of the following is important to
remember when using agency records?



a.
to ask permission before you study any
agency data



b.
to examine the data through some form of
content analysis



c.
the financial considerations of
obtaining complete agency records are typically substantial



d.
the discretionary actions by criminal
justice officials and others can affect the production of agency records






/






16.
 Dr. Quinn is interested in studying the amount
of overtime worked by police officers. He gains access to agency personnel
files. This is an illustration of which type of data?



a.
new data collected by agency staff



b.
nonpublic agency records



c.
secondary data



d.
published statistics






/






17.
 Being able to benefit from the work of
topflight professionals and esteemed academics is an advantage of using:



a.
secondary data



b.
published statistics



c.
nonpublic agency data



d.
new data collected by agency staff



/



18.
 You are analyzing data that has been collected
in annual waves for the past twenty years. Which of the following might be
problematic in this type of analysis?



a.
many similar questions were asked during
each of these waves, and the wording is consistent



b.
for the entire twenty years, the data
was collected by personal interviews



c.
the definitions of some key items have
changed over time within the culture



d.
using variables that are operationalized
consistently over time






/






19.
 When dealing with the conceptual problems that
emerge from complex relationships between different units of count, Maxfield
and Babbie suggest:



a.
defining individual people as units of
analysis



b.
following the paper trail



c.
using systematic sampling



d.
expecting the expected



/

Management Operations MCQs

Management Operations MCQs

Question
	


1. The service industry makes up approximately what percentage of all jobs in the United States- 


2. Which is not true regarding differences between goods and services?


3. Which is not true regarding differences between goods and services? 


4. Which of the following services is least likely to be unique, i.e., customized to a particular individual's needs?


5.Which of the following is not a typical service attribute? 




6.Which of the following attributes is most typical of a service


7.Experience Differentiation


8.32. Franz Colruyt has achieved low-cost leadership through



9. A firm producing a good is more likely to have which set of the following characteristics compared to a firm providing a service?




10. Which of the following influences layout design?
11. The largest contributor to productivity increases is ________, estimated to be responsible for _____ of the annual increase. 


12. Which of the following is not true when explaining why productivity tends to be lower in the service sector than in the manufacturing sector? 


13. Three commonly used productivity variables are 


14.Firm A operates 10 hours each day, producing 100 parts/hour. If productivity were increased 30%, how many hours would the plant have to work to produce 1000 parts?


15.A cleaning company uses 10 lbs each of chemicals A, B and C for each house it cleans. After some quality complaints, the company has decided to increase its use of chemical A by an additional 10 lbs for each house. By what % has productivity (houses per pound of chemical) fallen?




16.Cost minimization is an appropriate strategy in which stage of the product life cycle?




17. Which of the following OM strategy/issues should a firm with a product in the maturity stage of its life cycle be least concerned with at the present time?




18. Which of the following is least likely to result in a strategy change?


19.Which of the following is not an operations strategy decision?




20.Which of the following statements regarding PERT times is true?




21. Which of the following statements regarding PERT times is true?




22. In a PERT network, non-critical activities that have little slack need to be monitored closely




23. Given an actual demand of 61, a previous forecast of 58, and an alpha of .3, what would the forecast for the next period be, using simple exponential smoothing?


24.Which of the following values of alpha would cause exponential smoothing to respond the mostslowly to forecast errors?




25.A forecasting method has produced the following over the past five months. What is the meanabsolute deviation?
Actual Forecast Error |Error|
10 11 -1 1
8 10 -2 2
10 8 2 2
6 6 0 0
9 8 1 1




26.Given forecast errors of -1, 4, 8, and -3, what is the mean absolute deviation?




27.The last four months of sales were 8, 10, 15, and 9 units. The last four forecasts were 5, 6, 11, and 12 units. The Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) is____________




28.Value analysis takes place




29.Which of the following makes products that are friendlier to the environment?


30.One method used to determine a product'stotal environmental impact from conversion of inputs through production and to disposal is ______


31. Products are more "environmentally friendly" when they are made




32. An operations manager's ethical responsibilities




33. Total Quality Management emphasizes


34."Kaizen" is a Japanese term meaning



35.Which of the following statements regarding "Six Sigma" is true?



36.Product Focused processes



37.Value Stream Mapping



38.One fundamental difference between a process chart and a process map is that



39.Service blueprinting



40.A drawing of the movement of material, product, or people is a



41.Which of the following statements regarding "proximity" in the location decision is false?



42.Which of the following is the best example of the proximity rule that, for service firms, proximity to market is the most important location factor?



43.Which of the following worker characteristics would likely be least important for U.S. firms looking to open up call centers in different countries?



44.Community attitudes, zoning restrictions, and quality of labor force are likely to be considered in
which of the following location decision methods?



45. Which of the following methods best considers intangible costs related to a location decision?



46. Evaluating location alternatives by comparing their composite (weighted-average) scores involves



47. Which of the statements below best describes office layout?



48.Which of the following constitutes a major trend influencing office layouts?



49.Which of the following does not support the retail layout objective of maximizing customer exposure to products?



50.Ambient conditions, spatial layout and functionality, and signs, symbols, and artifacts are all



51.Balancing low-cost storage with low-cost material handling is important in a(n)



52.Which of the following requires an information system that provides inbound product identification, its destination, and routing of the product to the designated outbound vehicle?



53. Which of the following best describes Vizio’s supply chain?




54.Local optimization is a supply chain complication best described as



55. The "bullwhip" effect



56.A restaurant runs a special promotion on lobster and plans to sell twice as many lobsters as usual. When this large order is sent to the distributer, the distributer assumes the large size is a trend, not a one-time event. The distributer therefore places an even larger order with the lobsterman. This is the result of




57. Giving quantity discounts based on annual income instead of single order size helps to control which supply-chain issue?




58.Which of the following is not an opportunity for effective management in the supply chain?



59.Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is true?



60.The assumptions of the production order quantity model are met in a situation where annual demand is 3650 units, setup cost is $50, holding cost is $12 per unit per year, the daily demand rate is 10 and the daily production rate is 100. The production order quantity for this problem is approximately



61.A production order quantity problem has daily demand rate = 10 and daily production rate = 50. The production order quantity for this problem is approximately 612 units. The average inventory for this problem is approximately



62.Which category of inventory holding costs is much higher than average for rapid-change industries such as PCs and cell phones?



63.When quantity discounts are allowed, the cost-minimizing order quantity



64.In level scheduling, what is kept uniform from month to month?



65.Which of the following is not consistent with a pure level strategy?





66.Which of the following is not an advantage of level scheduling?



67.A firm uses the pure chase strategy of aggregate planning. It produced 1000 units in the last period. Demand in the next period is estimated at 800, and demand over the next six periods (its aggregate planning horizon) is estimated to average 900 units. In following the chase strategy, the firm will



68.A firm's demand in the next four quarters (its aggregate planning horizon) is forecast to be 80, 50, 40, and 90 units. Last quarter, the firm produced 60 units. If it uses level scheduling, the firm will.



69.It is week 1 and there are currently 20 A's in stock. The MPS calls for 300 A's at the start of week 5. If there are scheduled receipts planned for week 3 and 4 of 120 A’s each and A has a lead time of 1 week, when and how large of an order should be placed to meet the requirement of 300 A’s?




70. A material requirements plan contains information with regard to all of the following except



71. Each R requires 4 of component S; each S requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is ______ weeks.



72.A method of input-output control that uses a system of cards to limit the amount of work at a work center and also to control lead time and monitor backlog is




73.If an assignment problem consists of 6 workers and 7 projects,


74. In MRP, the number of units projected to be available at the beginning of each time perios refers to




75.Linking a part requirement with the parent component that caused the requirement is referred to as



76. In MRP, system nervousness is caused by



77. One of the tools that is particularly useful in reducing the system nervousness in the MRP system is (are)





78.Which of the following is a step towards integrating JIT and MRP according to the text?




79. Material requirements plan specify______________




80.Which of the following best differentiates material requirements planning (MRP) from finite capacity scheduling (FCS)?



81.If an assignment problem consists of 5 workers and 4 projects,


82.Which of the following dispatching rules tends to minimize job flow time?


83.Average completion time for a schedule sequence at a work center is the ratio of 


84. Factory X is trying to use level use scheduling. If their first target were to cut the current lot size in half, by what proportion must setup cost change?




85.Which one of the following statements is true about the kanban system?




86.Kanban is associated with all of the following except




87. The priority rule that sequences jobs using the smallest ratio of due date from today to processing time is ________




88.Which of the following is an advantage of the FCFS dispatching rule when used in services?


89. The most appropriate sequencing rule to use if the goal is to dynamically track the progress of jobs and establish relative priority on a common basis is


90. A characteristics of JIT partnership with respect to quality is to


91. Which of the following is not a goal of JIT partnership




92. Which one of the following is a concern expressed by suppliers?




93. Reduction of in-transit inventory can be encouraged through use of 




94.In JIT partnerships, suppliers have several concerns. Which of the following is not such a concern?





95. The word "kanban" means



96. Infant mortality in electronics follows which kind of distribution?




97. Suppose that the introduction of a preventive maintenance program is deemed cost effective. Which of the following is most likely true if the cost to actually perform preventive maintenance is very expensive?




98. As fas as maintenance costs are concerned




99. For a machine to be a good candidate for preventive maintenance




100. Whichone of the following is not necessary to identify the optimal maintenance policy?

stats data bank

stats data bank

Question
	
Quiz 2 Numerical descriptive statistics and
sampling






1. The following marks are the test 1 marks
for 10 randomly selected STA100 students: 67, 34, 98, 78, 76, 55, 80, 49, 91,
66. What is the mean mark for this
sample?



a. 69.1



b. 69.4



c. 62.2



d. 70.3



e. 71.5






2. The following marks are the test 1 marks
for 10 randomly selected STA100 students: 67, 34, 98, 78, 76, 52, 80, 49, 91,
66. What is the mean mark for this
sample?



a. 69.1



b. 69.4



c. 62.2



d. 70.3



e. 71.5






3. The following marks are the test 1 marks
for 10 randomly selected STA100 students: 67, 34, 98, 78, 76, 55, 80, 49, 19,
66. What is the mean mark for this
sample?



a. 69.1



b. 69.4



c. 62.2



d. 70.3



e. 71.5






4. The following marks are the test 1 marks
for 10 randomly selected STA100 students: 67, 43, 98, 78, 76, 55, 80, 49, 91,
66. What is the mean mark for this
sample?



a. 69.1



b. 69.4



c. 62.2



d. 70.3



e. 71.5






5. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 25 students was 75%. If the 15
female students in the class averaged 70%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 82.5%



b. 79.5%



c. 63.0%



d. 79.6%



e. 71.5%






6. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 25 students was 75%. If the 15
female students in the class averaged 72%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 82.5%



b. 79.5%



c. 63.0%



d. 79.6%



e. 71.5%






7. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 25 students was 75%. If the 15
female students in the class averaged 83%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 82.5%



b. 79.5%



c. 63.0%



d. 79.6%



e. 71.5%






8. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 25 students was 75%. If the 12
female students in the class averaged 70%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 82.5%



b. 79.5%



c. 63.0%



d. 79.6%



e. 71.5%






9. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 25 students was 73%. If the 15
female students in the class averaged 70%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 77.5%



b. 80.0%



c. 90.0%



d. 51.0%



e. 71.5%






10. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 30 students was 75%. If the 15
female students in the class averaged 70%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 77.5%



b. 80.0%



c. 90.0%



d. 51.0%



e. 71.5%






11. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 25 students was 78%. If the 15
female students in the class averaged 70%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 77.5%



b. 80.0%



c. 90.0%



d. 51.0%



e. 71.5%






12. The average mark on a stats test for a
class of 25 students was 75%. If the 15
female students in the class averaged 91%, then what did the male students in
the class average?



a. 77.5%



b. 80.0%



c. 90.0%



d. 51.0%



e. 71.5%






13. The average final exam mark for a class
of 15 stats students was 84%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 75%, when it was in fact 57%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 82.8%



b. 83.1%



c. 78.8%



d. 82.5%



e. 71.5%






14. The average final exam mark for a class
of 20 stats students was 84%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 75%, when it was in fact 57%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 82.8%



b. 83.1%



c. 78.8%



d. 82.5%



e. 71.5%






15. The average final exam mark for a class
of 15 stats students was 80%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 75%, when it was in fact 57%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 82.8%



b. 83.1%



c. 78.8%



d. 82.5%



e. 71.5%






16. The average final exam mark for a class
of 15 stats students was 84%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 80%, when it was in fact 57%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 82.8%



b. 83.1%



c. 78.8%*d. 82.5%



e. 71.5%






17. The average final exam mark for a class
of 15 stats students was 84%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 75%, when it was in fact 70%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 83.7%



b. 84.4%



c. 82.4%



d. 83.3%



e. 71.5%






18. The average final exam mark for a class
of 15 stats students was 84%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 75%, when it was in fact 81%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 83.7%



b. 84.4%



c. 82.4%



d. 83.3%



e. 71.5%






19. The average final exam mark for a class
of 15 stats students was 84%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 81%, when it was in fact 57%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 83.7%



b. 84.4%



c. 82.4%



d. 83.3%



e. 71.5%






20. The average final exam mark for a class
of 25 stats students was 84%. However,
soon after this average was calculated, it was discovered that one of the marks
was incorrectly recorded as 75%, when it was in fact 57%. If the marks are corrected, what would the
new class average be?



a. 83.7%



b. 84.4%



c. 82.4%



d. 83.3%



e. 71.5%






21. The following ages are those of 15
people interviewed at the Ster-Kinekor movie theatres in Canal Walk shopping
centre: 12, 14, 15, 19, 19, 21, 27, 31, 32, 46, 53, 56, 57, 58, 59. What is the sum of the median and the mode?



a. 50



b. 64



c. 52



d. 87



e. 51






22. The following ages are those of 15
people interviewed at the Ster-Kinekor movie theatres in Canal Walk shopping
centre: 12, 14, 15, 19, 19, 21, 27, 32, 32, 32, 53, 56, 57, 58, 59. What is the sum of the median and the mode?



a. 50



b. 64



c. 52



d. 87



e. 51






23. The following ages are those of 15
people interviewed at the Ster-Kinekor movie theatres in Canal Walk shopping
centre: 12, 14, 15, 18, 19, 21, 21, 31, 32, 46, 53, 56, 57, 58, 59. What is the sum of the median and the mode?



a. 50



b.64



c. 52



d. 87



e. 51






24. The following ages are those of 15
people interviewed at the Ster-Kinekor movie theatres in Canal Walk shopping
centre: 12, 14, 15, 19, 19, 21, 27, 31, 32, 46, 53, 56, 56, 56, 59. What is the sum of the median and the mode?



a. 50



b. 64



c. 52



d. 87



e. 51






25.Given the following data set, calculate the sum of the mean, median
and mode: 5, 3, 10, 4, 2, 3



a. 11.5



b. 12



c. 13.5



d. 11



e. 12.5






26. Given the following data set,
calculate the sum of the mean, median and mode:
5, 3, 10, 4, 11, 3



a. 11.5



b. 12



*c. 13.5



d. 11



e. 12.5






27. Given the following data set,
calculate the sum of the mean, median and mode:
8, 3, 10, 4, 2, 3



a. 11.5



b. 12



c. 13.5



d. 11



e. 12.5






28. Given the following data set,
calculate the sum of the mean, median and mode:
5, 3, 10, 7, 2, 3



a. 11.5



b. 12



c. 13.5



d. 11



e. 12.5