When evaluating the quality of a forecast

When evaluating the quality of a forecast

Subject: Business / Management
Question
Part I: True-False Questions

1. When evaluating the quality of a forecast, it is possible to have Bias < 0 and MAD = 0 at the same time.

A) True
B) False

2. The quality of a product is considered to be an order winner if quality is the deciding factor in the customer’s decision to purchase the product.

A) True
B) False

3. In increase in input from one year to the next will always result in a decrease in productivity, regardless of whether outputs increase as well.

A) True
B) False

4. When developing its operations strategy, a manufacturing or service organization should identify and leverage its core capabilities, the set of skills that differentiate it from its competitors.

A) True
B) False

5. A product that can be easily assembled from a set of independent components or modules is well suited for being produced by a mass customization approach.

A) True
B) False

6. Although many consumers receive a large quantity of sales material through the mail, the service-system design matrix indicates that some form of face-to-face contact provides a higher sales opportunity than does mail contact.

A) True
B) False

7. The sharing of information between customers and suppliers in a supply chain will increase both variability and uncertainty, forcing companies in the supply chain to increase their inventories and lengthen delivery lead times.

A) True
B) False

8.

When a company uses a make-to-stock production approach, the scheduled production levels are based on a forecast of demand.

A) True
B) False

9. Total Factor Productivity (TFP) is calculated as:TFP = Input/(Labor + Capital + Materials + Energy)

A) True
B) False

10. One strategic use of the service-system design matrix is to permit comparisons with how other competitors deliver a specific service, and to determine where a competitive advantage resulting from a different delivery method may be present.

A) True
B) False

11. From the perspective of a company in the middle of a long supply chain, its customer relationship processes include the interaction its sales force has with its customers.

A) True
B) False

12. The primary purpose in building a house of quality matrix is to aid a cross-functional team in making decisions related to marketing and engineering design decisions, with the goal of creating a product that will satisfy customers.

A) True
B) False

13. Baggage handling, beginning with the point where the passenger’s suitcase has been labeled and placed on the conveyor belt, is considered a low contact operation at an airline.

A) True
B) False

14. The value analysis and value engineering processes are intended to identify product changes that can reduce costs through actions such as eliminating nonstandard components or unnecessary design features.

A) True
B) False

15. If a queuing system has a limited-size customer pool, it is treated as having an infinite population.

A) True
B) False

Part II: Multiple Choice Questions

16. Delaying the process step that differentiates the product to a point late in the supply chain is called

A) an efficient supply chain.
B) process postponement.
C) an outsourcing strategy.
D) the bullwhip effect.
E) global positioning sourcing.

17. Given the following information (RSFE and MAD) on the quality of a forecast, and using the tracking signal (TS) range presented in class, in which period would the tracking signal first classify the forecast as being “out of control”?

Period

RSFE

MAD

3

58

16

4

76

20

5

82

18

6

74

18

A) in period 3.
B) in period 4.
C) in period 5.
D) in period 6.
E) This forecast would not be classified as being out of control.

18. A product requires 32 distinct steps to manufacture, with a total work content of 67 minutes. Demand for the product requires that the single assembly line must produce one unit every 6 minutes. If it is possible to balance the line using the theoretical minimum number of workstations, what level of throughput efficiency (TE) will be achieved?

A) 100% TE
B) between 95.9% TE and 99.9% TE
C) between 93.9% TE and 95.8% TE
D) between 91.9% TE and 93.8% TE
E) less than 91.9% TE

19. Which of the following is notone of the seven characteristics of a well-designed service system?

A) It is robust.
B) It ensures complete independence and separation between the “back office” and the “front office.”
C) It is cost-effective.
D) It manages the evidence of service quality so that customers see the value of the service provided.
E) Select this answer if you think that all of the above (a,b,c,d) are characteristics of a well-designed service system.

20. Which of the following statements does not characterize the quality function deployment (QFD) process?

A) QFD helps marketing and engineering work together on design decisions.
B) QFD helps identify the product characteristics that are important to the customer.
C) QFD uses a “house of quality” matrix to show how customer requirements relate to the technical characteristics of a product.
D) QFD uses customer input to identify how a product performs relative to competitors’ products.
E) Select this answer if you think that all of the above answers (a,b,c,d) correctly characterize the QFD process.

21. Although some sources say that the best operating point for a service facility is at approximately 70% of the maximum capacity, the optimal utilization rate depends on the context. In which of the following situations would it be most appropriate to operate at a relatively low percent of maximum capacity?

A) A dry cleaning (laundry) operation.
B) Processing membership applications submitted by mail.
C) The Ashland fire department.
D) The Columbus Crew stadium (seating for home games.)
E) A flight on United Airlines.

22. Actual sales in April and May were 50 and 60 units, respectively. Forecast sales for those same two months were 55 and 65. Which of the following statements about the two forecasts is true?

A) The average error is 5 and the MAD is 5.
B) The average error is 0 and the MAD is 5.
C) The average error is 0 and the MAD is 0.
D) The average error is -5 and the MAD is 5.
E) None of the above statements (a,b,c,d) is true.

23. A copy center served 1,841 customers last week. The center was open 7 days per week, 8 hours per day, and runs 1 shift per day. There are 4 employees each working an 8-hour shift per day. What was the labor productivity at the copy center last week?

A) 2.1 customers per labor hour.
B) 4.1 customers per labor hour.
C) 8.2 customers per labor hour.
D) 16.4 customers per labor hour.
E) 57.5 customers per labor hour.

24. An operation (routing) sheet does which of the following?

A) It shows how parts go together and the order of assembly.
B) It shows an “exploded” view of the product and its components.
C) It defines symbolically, and in great detail, the operations performed.
D) It specifies the sequence of machines or workcenters used to assemble the product.
E) It shows the route taken from the supplier to the warehouse.

25. Given the following quarterly demand data for 2011 – 2012, what is the multiplicative seasonal index for quarter 3?

Quarter

2011

2012

Q1

120

113

Q2

135

132

Q3

144

143

Q4

114

118

A) less than 0.50
B) between 0.50 and 1.00
C) between 1.01 and 1.20
D) between 1.21 and 1.40
E) greater than 1.40

26. Using the data given in the previous problem (and reproduced in the table below), if the seasonal index for quarter 4 is 1.91, what forecast (rounded to the nearest integer) should be made for quarter 4 of 2013?

Quarter

2011

2012

Q1

120

113

Q2

135

132

Q3

144

143

Q4

114

118

A) 91
B) 115
C) 118
D) 127
E) 133

27. The following table lists the anticipated profits associated with five alternate product innovations using two possible scenarios: low demand (30% probability) and high demand (70% probability.) Based on the expected value criterion, which product innovation should be selected?

Product Innovation

AA

BB

CC

DD

EE

Profits with Low Demand (p = .30)

10

30

20

60

30

Profits with High Demand (p = .70)

60

40

10

30

50

A) AA
B) BB
C) CC
D) DD
E) EE

28. Given a similar decision situation as in the previous question (NOTE: this is not the same decision table), and assuming that the probabilities of each demand situation are not known in this case, which option should be selected if the decision maker applies the maximin decision criterion?

Product Innovation

AA

BB

CC

DD

EE

Profits with Low Demand

15

30

20

85

35

Profits with High Demand

70

50

10

30

40

A) AA
B) BB
C) CC
D) DD
E) EE

29. Which of the following answers characterizes a continuous flow process most accurately?

A) high volume production, limited variety of products, and high labor cost per unit
B) high volume production, large variety of products, and low labor cost per unit
C) high volume production, limited variety of products, and low labor cost per unit
D) low volume production, limited variety of products, and low labor cost per unit
E) low volume production, large variety of products, and high labor cost per unit

30. Consider two firms that provide the same product to customers. Company A uses a make-to-order (MTO) process, while Company B uses a make-to-stock (MTS) process. Which of the following statements about the way each firm meets customer demand is not true?

A) Company A (MTO)will have a longer delivery lead time than will Company B (MTS)in most cases.
B) Company A (MTO)will be better able to provide a customized product than will Company B (MTS).
C) While making the product, Company A (MTO)will have a greater need to keep track of individual customer orders and requirements than will Company B (MTS).
D) When determining production schedules, Company A (MTO)will rely more heavily on forecasts of customer demand than will Company B (MTS).
E) Both Company A and Company B may choose to sell only standard products to their customers.

Part III ?? Essay and Computational

31. (15 points) A flowchart used for service process design is often referred to as a service blueprint. First, describe what the line of visibility on a service blueprint shows. Then, consider any service business that you are familiar with. Define what is meant by a “poka-yoke”, and describe at least one element of the service system that is an example of a poka-yoke (if the system does not have any examples of poka-yoke, suggest at least one that could be added). [Your answer can be a maximum length of 1 page typed, double-spaced, so be concise!] Note: for full credit, you must give an example of a poka-yoke in a service industry, not a manufacturing industry.

32. (10 points) A bank reviews loan applications. One team of employees in this bank does a relatively quick initial screening of applications to reject loan applications with no chance of approval. The following table gives the number of applications screened by this team during the past four months. Note: Assume that there is a backlog of loan applications waiting to be screened in each month; for example, assume that there were more than 850 applications waiting to be screened in July. Due to an increasing volume of applications in the summer, the company hired three additional reviewers at the beginning of July, as shown in the table.

Month

April

May

June

July

Loan Applications Screened

440

480

520

840

Number of

Workers

4

4

4

7

Labor

Productivity

a. Calculate the labor productivity for each month, placing your answers in the blank spaces in the

table above.

b. Briefly describe how labor productivity has changed over the four month period, and suggest a reason why productivity increased or decreased in a given month.

33. (10 points) Many manufacturing companies have applied the concept of DFMA (Design For Manufacturability and Assembly) to improve the design of their products. Select any product that you are familiar with that requires some assembly (by the factory and/or by the customer) and describe the changes to the product that you might suggest as part of a DFMA initiative. Discuss the benefits that the company making that product would expect to achieve from DFMA. [Your answer can be a maximum length of 1 page typed, double-spaced, so be concise!

3434. (10 points) A time study analyst observes a worker over a period of time and calculates that the worker required 30.0 minutes per unit produced. The worker was rated at a 110 percent performance rating, and a 15 percent allowance for personal time and fatigue applies. What is the standard time for this task?

If a worker managed to produce 14 units in an eight-hour day, what would their day’s pay be if the basic rate was $18 per hour and the premium payment system paid on a 100 percent basis?

35. (10 points) The following gives the number of computers sold during each of the last four months.

Computers

Month Sold

February 330

March 320

April 290

May 330

a. Using a four-period weighted moving average, with weights w1 = .3, w2 = .3, w3 = .2 and w4 = .2, forecast the number of computers to be sold in June.

b. Using a three-period simple moving average, forecast the number of computers to be sold in June.

c. Using simple exponential smoothing with an initial forecast for April of 320 and smoothing constant ? = 0.2, forecast the number of computers to be sold in June. If you also had to make a forecast for July (two months from now), what would it be?

d. Which of the forecasting methods used in part (b) and part (c) above will be more responsive to changes in demand?

36. (15 points) A hotel breakfast area has a self-serve coffee machine. During the three hour breakfast period, customers arrive at a rate of 80 per hour (approximately one new customer arrives every 45 seconds), and the arrivals follow a Poisson distribution. The mean service rate at the coffee machine follows an Exponential distribution, and is 180 customers per hour (customers take approximately 20 seconds to serve themselves a cup of coffee.)

What is the mean (average) time in hours that a customer spends in the system (waiting in line at the machine, then filling their cup with coffee)?

The hotel wants to know how crowded the area around the coffee machine will be during a typical breakfast period. What is the mean number of customers that are in line, waiting to get a cup of coffee?

What is the mean utilization percentage of the coffee machine (the server in this system)?

d. If the company decides to purchase a second coffee machine (there are now two “servers” in this system), the waiting time should be faster. On average, how long will a customer now wait in line for their cup of coffee?

general business data bank

Question
	
107)
Successful entrepreneurs recognize that their most valuable asset is their
time, and they learn to manage it effectively to make themselves and their
companies more productive; having passion about their businesses, products, and
customers enables them to stay motivated.



108)
Expanding a business usually requires no significant changes in structure or
business practices.



109)
What is an entrepreneur? Give a brief profile of a typical entrepreneur. What
is the primary motivation for the typical entrepreneur?



110)
Discuss the potential benefits and drawbacks of entrepreneurship.



111)
Describe the factors that are driving the current entrepreneurial trend in the
U.S. economy.





112) Discuss the role that the
following groups are playing in leading the ongoing surge in entrepreneurial
activity:

? women

? minorities

? immigrants

? part-time
entrepreneurs

? home-based
entrepreneurs

? family
businesses

? copreneurs

? corporate
castoffs

? corporate
dropouts



113)
Discuss the impact of small businesses on the U.S. economy, including sales,
GDP, job creation, and innovation.

114) The following lists the ten
deadly mistakes of entrepreneurship. 

1. Management mistakes

2. Lack of experience

3. Poor financial control

4. Weak marketing efforts

5. Failure to develop a strategic plan

6. Uncontrolled growth

7. Poor location

8. Improper inventory control

9. Incorrect pricing

10. Inability to make the entrepreneurial transition



Select
one of these deadly mistakes, describe what it may look like for the
entrepreneur, and give an example. 





115)
Describe the small business failure rate. What are the primary causes of
business failures, and what steps can an entrepreneur take to avoid becoming a
business failure statistic?

business
plan, learning to manage people effectively, and keeping in tune with yourself.



Mini Case 1-1: Hudson's Dilemma



Bill
Hudson was a real craftsman when it came to being a machinist. Bill had learned
almost all that he knew from Hugo Huffman, his first and only employer. Bill
Hudson was married and had three young children. He was 33 years old and had
worked for Hugo ever since he finished his tour in the army. In 12 years, Bill
had polished his skills under the watchful and critical eye of Hugo Huffman.
Hugo was quick to recognize Bill's talent for the trade. Bill had a positive
attitude about learning and displayed a drive for perfection that Hugo admired.



Hugo's
Machine Shop was a successful small business. Its success was based mostly on
the reputation for quality that had been established over its 42 years in
operation. Hugo had come to this country with his new wife, Hilda, when he was
in his late twenties. Now the business was a success, but Hugo remembered the
early years when he and Hilda had to struggle. Hugo wanted the business to
continue to produce the highest quality craftsman products possible. On a
Friday evening, he called Bill into his office at closing time, poured him a
cup of half-day-old coffee, and began to talk with him about the future.



"Bill,
Hilda and I are getting old and I want to retire. It has been 42 years of fun
but these old hands need a rest. In short, Hilda and I would like you to buy
the business. We both feel that your heart is in this craft and that you would
always retain the quality that we have stood for." Bill was taken back by
the offer. He, of course, knew Hugo was getting older, but had no idea Hugo
would retire. Bill and his wife, Anna, had only $4,200 in the bank. Most of
Bill's salary went for the normal costs of rearing three children. Hugo knew
Bill did not have the money to buy the business in cash, but he was willing to
take a portion of the profits for the next 15 years and a modest initial
investment from Bill.



Bill
had, for the past four years, made most of the technical decisions in the shop.
Bill knew the customers and was well respected by the employees. He had never
been involved in the business side of the operation. He was a a high school
graduate but had never taken business courses. Bill was told by Hugo that even
after deducting the percentage of the profits he would owe under the sales
agreement, he would be able to almost double his annual earnings. Bill would
have to take on all the business functions himself because Anna had no business
training either.







116)
Which entrepreneurial characteristics does Bill have that may be important to
his success? Which characteristic could lead to his failure?



117)
What steps should Bill take to avoid the pitfalls common to a small business?

	

What are the two main characteristics of survey research

Question
	
1 What are the two main characteristics of survey research?
a large random samples and self-report measures
b self-report measures and face-to-face interviews
c face-to-face interviews and statistical analysis
d statistical analysis and large random samples
2 Researchers are most likely to use open-ended items under which of the following conditions?
a They have a specific construct that they want to measure.
b They do not have preconceived ideas about how people will respond.
c They want their data to be quick and easy to analyze.
d They are conducting their survey over the Internet.
3 Which of the following is generally an advantage of closed-ended items over open-ended items?
a They get more directly at the specific variables the researcher is interested in.
b People’s responses are easier to analyze.
c People can respond to them more quickly.
d all of the above
4 True or False.
Rsponses to open-ended items are generally easier to analyze than responses to closed-ended items.
5 The BRUSO model is a model of which of the following?
a how people respond to survey questionnaire items
b the process of administering a survey
c good survey questionnaire items
d none of the above
6 For most purposes, which of the following would be the best response scale?
a Disagree / Neutral / Somewhat Agree / Agree / Strongly Agree
b Disagree / Neutral / Agree
c Do Not Care / Disagree / Neutral / Agree / Care Strongly
d Strongly Disagree / Disagree / Neutral / Agree / Strongly Agree
7 A survey research randomly samples 500 white Americans and 500 black Americans. Which approach has the researcher used?
a stratified random sampling
b cluster sampling
c nonprobability sampling
d simple random sampling
8 What is the best way to address the problem of nonresponse bias?
a ignore the nonresponders when analyzing the data
b force everyone to respond
c do everything possible to maximize response rates
d write unbiased questionnaire items
9 Which survey type generally has the highest response rate?
a in person
b telephone
c mail
d Internet
1What is the defining feature of nonexperimental research?
a It is about personality and individual differences.
b It lacks the manipulation of an independent variable, random assignment, or both.
c It involves only one variable.
d It has high external validity.
11True or False
It is always best to avoid conducting nonexperimental research.
12.Nonexperimental research is appropriate when the independent variable cannot be
manipulated.
13.A quasi-experiment includes the random assignment of participants to conditions or orders
of conditions.
14.Which of the following is most likely to be studied using a correlational study?
a the effect of study strategy on recall
b.the effect of traumatic childhood experiences on adult depression
c.the effect of noise level on mental concentration
d.the effect of wearing glasses on how attractive people are perceived to be
15.Which of the following generally has the highest internal validity?
a.experiments
b.quasi-experiments
c.correlational studies
d.qualitative studies
16.A researcher conducts a study on the relationship between caffeine consumption and
performance on a math test. What kind of study is this?
a.experimental
b. correlational
c. quasi-experimental
d. There is not enough information here to tell for sure.
17.Which of the following is the defining feature of correlational research?
a. An independent variable is manipulated while extraneous variables are controlled.
b. One variable is measured and described.
c. Research participants are interviewed in depth about their experiences.
d. Two variables are measured and the relationship between them is assessed.
18.A quasi-experiment includes which of the following?
a. random sampling of participants
b. random assignment of participants to conditions
c. the manipulation of an independent variable
d. none of the above
19. “Mixed methods research” refers to which of the following?
a. research that combines quantitative and qualitative approaches
b. research that combines experimental and correlational approaches
c. research that combines experimental and quasi-experimental approaches
d. research that combines basic and applied approaches
20.A new anti-drug program is instituted at one elementary school. Then the attitudes of the students toward drugs are compared to the attitudes of students at a similar elementary school without the program. What kind of research design is this?
a. a between-subjects experiment
b. a correlational study
c. a nonequivalent groups design
d. a pretest-posttest design
21.Which of the following presents the major sections of an APA style empirical research report in the correct order?
a. Introduction, Method, Results, Discussion
b. Method, Results, Discussion, Abstract
c. Abstract, Discussion, Method, Results
d. Method, Introduction, Discussion, Results
2.Which of the following references is formatted correctly in APA style?
a. Williams, J. S. (2008). Effects of sleep deprivation on exam performance. Journal of Psychology and Education, 14, 332-335.
b. XXXXX, XXXXX S. (2008). Effects of sleep deprivation on exam performance. Journal of Psychology and Education, 14, 332-335.
c. Williams, J. S. (2008). Effects of Sleep Deprivation on Exam Performance. Journal of Psychology and Education, 14, pp. 332-335.
d. Williams, J. Sherman (2008). Effects of sleep deprivation on exam performance. Journal of Psychology and Education, 14, 332-335.
23.Which of the following reference citations is formatted correctly in APA style?
a. Williams studied the effect of sleep deprivation on exam performance (2008).
b. Williams (2008) studied the effect of sleep deprivation on exam performance.
c. Sleep deprivation has a negative effect on exam performance (Williams, J. S., 2008).
d. Sleep deprivation has a negative effect on exam performance. (Williams, 2008).
24.The literature review of an APA style introduction section should do which of the following?
a. cite and discuss the three most important studies on the current topic
b. provide an exhaustive list of all research conducted on the current topic
c. make an argument for why the current research question is worth addressing
d. discuss only new research that has been published in the past five years
	

POLI330 All Discussions Latest 2017 April

POLI330 All Discussions Latest 2017 April

Subject: Political Science / General Political Science
Question
POLI330 Week 1 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April
dq 1
Politics in Our Daily Lives (graded)
As we read and discuss the definition of politics, let’s also consider the consequences of political decisions on our everyday lives. Can you think of examples from your everyday life when you encounter politics? What makes these experiences “political?”

As you discuss this with one another, let’s not forget to comment on other people’s experiences. Have you experienced similar situations? Can you think of creative ways in which politics plays itself out in your daily life?

dq 2

The Study of Political Science (graded)
The reading this week discusses the role of political scientists and their attempts to treat the study of politics as a science. In these efforts, they build scholarship based on reason, balance, and supporting evidence, although much of this scholarship is based on theory.

Discuss how political scientists attempt to quantify data, manipulate data statistically, and attempt to validate hypotheses.
POLI330 Week 2 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April
dq 1
Understanding the Theories (graded)
As your text explains, Plato is considered the father of political science. Within The Republic, he presents his theories on the foundations of a perfect government. Rather than a theoretical examination of government, The Republic is written in story form, as the main character Socrates explores the ideal way to form a city.

A largely studied portion of The Republic deals with Plato’s cave allegory. The story goes something like this: You, as a person, find yourself within a cave, chained to the ground, facing a stone wall. You cannot stand, and all you know are the images that play out before you, which are the shadows cast by a light source from behind you. You cannot see behind you, but you know that there are others in the cave with you. This is the only state you have ever known. It is your only reality of the world. Plato goes on to explain that then one day, people come and remove your chains, and take you out of the cave. As you can imagine, you are scared and frightful, and thus fight these individuals as they drag you into this new setting. However, over time you learn to accept the larger image of the world around you and come to understand life outside of the cave. You then attempt to go back into the cave to free others.

This story was Plato’s attempt to explain the world around us. Just picture it: You are chained to the ground and all you can see in front of you is a cave wall. There is a light source behind you, which casts reflections on the wall.

What do you think you would think of these reflections? Could they represent family members? Or friends? What about a god?
dq 2
Liberalism versus Socialism (graded)
The term liberalism, when applied to governments, is very different from the term liberal in America. Where liberalism implies a limited government, here in the United States a liberal is not usually seen as supporting a smaller government. This can be very confusing. In an effort to better understand these various meanings, we need to explore the variations within liberalism itself.

So who would like to explain how modern liberalism varies from classical liberalism? In addition, in what ways is classical liberalism similar to conservatism today?

POLI330 Week 3 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April
dq 1
Democracies Compared (graded)
Over the past few weeks, we have had the opportunity to explore the roots of political philosophy. Let’s take a moment to focus in upon the idea of democracy. What is the true definition of democracy?

dq 2

The Division of Power (graded)
As we have seen through our readings, governments differ on where the power of the state should be held.

Unitary systems concentrate the power within the central government and little or no authority is granted to the component areas. In contrast, federal systems allow first-order civil divisions to have some autonomy, while the central government maintains authority over some areas.

Take a moment to compare and contrast the strengths and weaknesses of each system.

POLI330 Week 4 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April
dq 1
Political Parties and Interest Groups (graded)
We continually hear about interest groups in the news. Understanding this, what is the relationship between interest groups and government? How does this apply to government-created interest groups? In addition, what are the effects of bureaucrats as interest groups? Do you believe this crossover between bureaucrats and interest groups to be right? Please be sure to provide specific examples in your response.
dq 2
Elections (graded)
Compare and contrast single-member districts and proportional representation (PR). How effective is each electoral system in representing its people’s interests? How do they support the party systems around which they arose?

POLI330 Week 5 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April
dq 1
Parliamentary and Presidential Systems (graded)

As we turn our focus to the international realm, let’s take a moment to compare the governmental systems of the United Kingdom and the United States.

Identify a few key differences between a parliamentary and a presidential system. How is the top leader selected differently? How do you think this difference impacts the kind of people who are chosen?

dq 2

The U.S. Supreme Court (graded)
The lecture this week suggests that the U.S. Supreme Court is the least democratic branch of government, and yet it serves an important function in our democracy.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a branch of government that is not democratically elected? Would you change the way the court is appointed?
POLI330 Week 6 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April
dq 1

Welfare Systems (graded)
Examine the efficacy of U.S. welfare programs. What do such programs intend to accomplish? What are some criticisms against them? Be sure to cite specific academic examples, not just ones from your opinion.

dq 2

Global Markets (graded)
Several countries around the world are transitioning to market economies; the most significant of these are China and Russia. What do you think the impact will be on other countries around the world as these two countries become even more significant in the global economy? What are some examples of this impact?
POLI330 Week 7 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April
dq 1
Ethnic Violence (graded)
In discussing the concept of violence this week, let’s take a moment to consider the following situation.

Imagine a country where religious factions inside a nation want to have their own separate homeland. The government refuses, claiming that the territory in question, which commands the nation’s only source of clean water, is vital to security. Is violence inevitable?
dq 2
International Treaties (graded)
In considering the international realm, let’s consider the concept of economic treaties. Specifically, let’s think about an organization like the European Union (EU).

Why was it formed? In addition, what are some of the objectives of the nations that are joining the EU?

MGMT310 Quiz 1

Question
	



 

 

 

 

 

 
Question 1 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 
 
 
 
Managers
 are responsible for getting activities completed efficiently and achieving
 the firm’s goals by utilizing:
 
 

 

 

 

 
A.Human, financial, and material
 resources 

 

 
 
 


 
 

 

 
B.Information,
 human, and service resources
 
 


 
 

 

 
C.Human
 resources, organizational competitiveness, and organizational goals
 
 


 
 

 

 
D.Financial
 resources, top management, and organizational goals
 
 


 
 
 

 






 

 

 
Question 2 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



A
difference between management and leadership can be defined in the following
way






 

 

 
A.management
 is human capital, and leadership is directing staff 

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.management
 is getting things done, and leadership is deciding what needs to be done
 
 



 

 

 
C.management is getting things done,
 and leadership is inspiring action taken by others
 
 



 

 

 
D.management
 is a position of authority or power, and leadership is inspiring action taken
 by others
 
 












 

 

 
Question 3 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Three
different types of planning used in the function of management are






 

 

 
A.strategic, tactical, and
 operational 

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.strategic,
 organizational design, and job design
 
 



 

 

 
C.job
 design, job enrichment, and teamwork
 
 



 

 

 
D.strategic,
 organizational design, and operational
 
 








 

 

 
Question 4 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Triple
bottom line refers to the measurement of business performance along






 

 

 
A.social,
 economic and organizational dimensions 

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.social, economic and environmental
 dimensions
 
 



 

 

 
C.economic,
 organizational, and human performance dimensions
 
 



 

 

 
D.environmental,
 organizational and corporate responsibility
 
 








 

 

 
Question 5 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



The
difference between group and team is






 

 

 
A.A collection of people is a group
 and not necessarily a team
 
 



 

 

 
B.Complementary
 skills are found in a group but not a team
 
 



 

 

 
C.The
 aim and purpose of a group is to perform in the workplace
 
 



 

 

 
D.Groups
 are defined by their relatively small size
 
 










 

 

 
Question 6 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



“The
interests of one person should never take precedence over what is best for the
company as a whole” is an explanation of which of Fayol’s principles of
management:






 

 

 
A.Unity
 of command
 
 



 

 

 
B.Unity
 of direction
 
 



 

 

 
C.Subordination of individual
 interest
 
 



 

 

 
D.Discipline
 
 








 

 

 
Question 7 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



The term
social movement refers to a type of group that:






 

 

 
A.Imitates
 corporations to improve employee morale in organizations 

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.Is focused on specific political
 or social issues
 
 



 

 

 
C.Mimic
 society
 
 



 

 

 
D.Performs
 activities outside the workplace
 
 








 

 

 
Question 8 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Working
with people from different countries can be a challenge because of:






 

 

 
A.Language issues and different
 cultural norms 

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.Cross-cultural
 misunderstandings
 
 



 

 

 
C.Different
 work skills according to cultural norms
 
 



 

 

 
D.Global
 strategic communication
 
 










 

 

 
Question 9 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



People in
societies where uncertainty avoidance is high want:






 

 

 
A.Are
 less rule-oriented 

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.Tolerate
 a variety of opinions
 
 



 

 

 
C.Are
 open to change and taking risks
 
 



 

 

 
D.Want
 strict rules, laws and policies
 
 








 

 

 
uestion 10 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Firms
with clearly communicated, widely understood and collectively shared mission
and vision have been shown:






 

 

 
A.To
 create and advance technology 

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.To
 embrace diversity
 
 



 

 

 
C.To
 perform better than those without them
 
 



 

 

 
D.To
 employ a smarter workforce
 
 










 

 

 
Question 11 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Organizational
culture is defined by all of the following EXCEPT:






 

 

 
A.
 
Life
 experiences of the employees
 
 



 

 

 
B.Strengths
 and weakness of the staff
 
 



 

 

 
C.Organizational mission and vision
 statements
 
 



 

 

 
D.Education
 of the employe
 
 








 

 

 
Question 12 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



The
number of people who participate in a nominal group technique is generally:








 

 

 
A.1-5 participants
 
 



 

 

 
B.3-8 participants
 
 



 

 

 
C.6-10
 participants
 
 



 

 

 
D.8-14 participants
 
 










 

 

 
Question 13 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Mission
and vision development are analogous to which step in the principles of
management framework:






 

 

 
A.
 
Planning
 
 



 

 

 
B.Organizing
 
 



 

 

 
C.Leading
 
 



 

 

 
D.Controlling
 
 








 

 

 
Question 14 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Strategy formulation answers the
question:






 

 

 
A.
 
How do
 we execute a chosen strategy?
 
 



 

 

 
B.What should our strategy be?
 
 



 

 

 
C.Where
 does strategy fit in?
 
 



 

 

 
D.How
 is strategy applied to me?
 
 








 

 

 
Question 15 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



The different aspects of strategy
as distinguished by Mintzberg include which of the following?:






 

 

 
A.
 
Consequential
 


 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.Differentiate
 
 



 

 

 
C.Realized
 
 



 

 

 
D.Permanent
 
 








 

 

 
Question 16 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Firms that do the product
leadership strategy well include which of the following factors:






 

 

 
A.
 
Do not
 focus on innovation
 
 



 

 

 
B.Have
 superb operations and execution
 
 



 

 

 
C.Are
 in stagnant markets
 
 



 

 

 
D.Focus on development, innovation,
 design, and time to market
 
 








 

 

 
Question 17 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Which of the following is
considered an intangible resources?:






 

 

 
A.
 
Scientific capabilities
 
 



 

 

 
B.Production
 equipment
 
 



 

 

 
C.Manufacturing
 plants
 
 



 

 

 
D.Formal
 reporting structures
 
 










 

 

 
Question 18 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



The
intensity of industry competition and an industry’s profit potential are a
function of which of the following forces of competition?:






 

 

 
A.
 
Power
 of stockholders
 
 



 

 

 
B.Power
 or employees
 
 



 

 

 
C.Gobal
 economic conditions
 
 



 

 

 
D.Threats posed by new entrants
 
 








 

 

 
Question 19 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Goals are
outcome statements that define what an organization is trying to accomplish:






 

 

 
A.
 
Programmatically
 
 



 

 

 
B.Organizationally
 
 



 

 

 
C.Both programmatically and
 organizationally
 
 



 

 

 
D.Internally
 
 








 

 

 
Question 20 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Characteristics of MBO includes
which of the following?:






 

 

 
A.
 
Systematic and organized approach
 
 



 

 

 
B.Aims
 to improve employee morale
 
 



 

 

 
C.It
 improves communication by centralizes decision making
 
 



 

 

 
D.Used
 by managers to track their best customers
 
 








 

 

 
Question 21 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



The
following is NOT considered a best practice when managing performance
evaluations:






 

 

 
A.Determine how best to use the Balanced Scorecard
 
 



 

 

 
B.Ensure that all key staff are involved in the
 development of the performance management processes
 
 



 

 

 
C.Provide additional training for supervisors on
 how to conduct the mid-year and year-end performance reviews
 
 



 

 

 
D.Plan to modify
 the performance management system over time
 

 

 

 

 

 

 
Question 22 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 
 
 
 
Among the top motivators
 driving corporations to engage in CSR include all of the following reasons
 EXCEPT:
 
 

 

 

 

 
A.Meeting or
 exceeding budget
 
 


 
 

 

 
B.Ethical considerations
 
 


 
 

 

 
C.Innovation and learning
 
 


 
 

 

 
D.Employee motivation
 
 


 
 
 
 








 

 

 
Question 23 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Self-development,
individual initiative and organizational loyalty are:






 

 

 
A.Necessary in current principles of behavior in
 organizations
 
 



 

 

 
B.Examples of
 organizational citizenship behaviors
 
 



 

 

 
C.In-role performance standards
 
 



 

 

 
D.CSR standards for individual performance
 
 








 

 

 
Question 24 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



The Gilbreths are most famous
for:






 

 

 
A.Content Packaging

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.Times studies
 
 



 

 

 
C.Productivity reports
 
 



 

 

 
D.Time and
 motion studies
 
 










 

 

 
Question 25 of 25
 
 

 
4.0
 Points
 



Social networks are often
referred to as:










 

 

 
A. The invisible organization

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
B.Important to organizational culture

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
C.NIH

 

 
 
 



 

 

 
D.Important to the mission and vision of the
 organization

 

 
 
 





	

Individual Social Psychology Definition Paper

Question
	
Individual Social Psychology Definition Paper
 Prepare at minimum a 1,400 word paper (no maximum) in which you examine the discipline of social psychology. As a part of your examination, be sure to address the following items:
o Define social psychology.
o Discuss how social psychology differs from other related disciplines (e.g., clinical psychology, general psychology, sociology).
o Explain the role of research in social psychology.
o Choose one of the major famous experiments in Social Psychology’s history and explain the relevance of it to social psychology (choose from: Milgram, Zimbardo, Asch, Sherif)
o Choose a subfield of social psychology research and find recent research in the field and explain the importance of that research – it should be peer reviewed (from the library)
o Any assignment that has more than 15% of the paper quoted (properly or improperly) will be subject to a point deduction or discipline action in the case of intentional plagiarism. You may run your paper through the UoPX Plagiarism Detector to ensure compliance.
o Be sure that you view the rubric for a more thorough discussion of paper requirements.
o Please also note if you go to the assignments tab – and check out the week one assignment, you will only see half of the assignment. The other half of the assignment is mentioned in here and more gradable materials are in the rubric. Using this blurb and the rubric will ensure you’ve covered all of the points.



		    
			

		
  
 
	

BUS 515-Imagine that you are the vice president of operations at a production

BUS 515-Imagine that you are the vice president of operations at a production

Subject: Business / Management
Question
OPERATION MANAGEMENT BUS 515
Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” video in the Student Center.

Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 1: Vice President of Operations, Part 1

Due Week 3 and worth 200 points

Scenario: Imagine that you are the vice president of operations at a production or service organization. You have noticed that your organization’s current operations strategy is not supporting the challenges that the organization is presently facing. In order to maintain a competitive edge, you must address these challenges with your Chief Executive Officer immediately.

Select an existing production organization. Analyze the organization’s current vision, mission, business strategy, operation strategy, supply chain, total quality management, just-in-time philosophy, forecasting method, statistical technique, facility location, work design, project life cycle, and project management. Note: You will need this information in order to complete this and subsequent assignments.

As you collect the information for Assignment 1 and Assignment 2, remember that in Assignment 3 you must prepare a presentation for your Chief Executive Officer.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

Evaluate key elements of the selected production or service organization’s operational efficiency with its operational strategy. Determine three (3) tasks that do not align with the operational strategy. Determine the weaknesses that are evident in each task.

Formulate a new operations strategy for the selected organization based on the four (4) competitive priorities (i.e., cost, quality, time, and flexibility).

Analyze both the structure of the competitive priorities and infrastructure of the production process. Develop three (3) new enablers that are aligned with the long-term plan of the selected organization. Evaluate three (3) pros and three (3) cons of the new enablers.

Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Analyze the differences between service and manufacturing operations management to identify planning considerations.

Formulate an operations strategy to conduct production or service operations.

Explain how an operations strategy impacts product design and process selection.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in operations management.

Write clearly and concisely about operations management using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills. Online

 

general business data bank

Question
	
. Currently, the risk-free rate is 6 percent
and the market risk premium is 5 percent.
On the basis of this information, which of the following statements is
most correct?



a. If a stock has a negative beta,
its required return must also be negative.

b. If a stock’s beta doubles, its required return
must also double.

c. An index fund with beta = 1.0 has a required
return of 11 percent.

d. Statements a and c are correct.

e. Statements b and c are correct.



 

. Which of the following statements is incorrect?



a. The slope of the security market line is
measured by beta.

b. Two securities with the same stand-alone risk
can have different betas.

c. Company-specific risk can be diversified away.

d. The market risk premium is affected by
attitudes about risk.

e. Higher beta stocks have a higher required return.



 

. Which of the following statements is most
correct?



a. The slope of the security market line is beta.

b. The slope of the security market line is the
market risk premium, (kM – kRF).

c. If you double a company’s beta its required
return more than doubles.

d. Statements a and c are correct.

e. Statements b and c are correct.



 

. Stock A has a beta of 1.2 and a standard
deviation of 20 percent. Stock B has a
beta of 0.8 and a standard deviation of 25 percent. Portfolio P is a $200,000 portfolio
consisting of $100,000 invested in Stock A and $100,000 invested in Stock
B. Which of the following statements is most
correct? (Assume that the required
return is determined by the Security Market Line.)



a. Stock B has a higher required rate of return
than Stock A.

b. Portfolio P has a standard deviation of 22.5
percent.

c. Portfolio P has a beta equal to 1.0.

d. Statements a and b are correct.

e. Statements a and c are correct.



 

. Nile Foods’ stock has a beta
of 1.4 and Elbe Eateries’ stock has a beta of 0.7. Assume that the risk-free rate, kRF,
is 5.5 percent and the market risk premium, (kM – kRF),
equals 4 percent. Which of the following
statements is most correct?



a. Since Nile’s beta is twice that of Elbe’s,
its required rate of return will also be twice that of Elbe’s.

b. If the risk-free rate increases
but the market risk premium remains unchanged, the required return will
increase for both stocks but the increase will be larger for Nile
since it has a higher beta.

c. If the
market risk premium increases but the risk-free rate remains unchanged, Nile’s
required return will increase (since it has a beta greater than 1.0) but Elbe’s
will decline (since it has a beta less than 1.0).

d. All of the statements above are
correct.

e. None of the statements above is
correct.



 

. Stock X has a beta of 0.6,
while Stock Y has a beta of 1.4. Which
of the following statements is most correct?



a. Stock Y must
have a higher expected return and a higher standard deviation than Stock X.

b. A portfolio consisting of
$50,000 invested in Stock X and $50,000 invested in Stock Y will have a
required return that exceeds that of the overall market.

c. If the market risk premium
decreases (but expected inflation is unchanged), the required return on both
stocks will decrease but the decrease will be greater for Stock Y.

d. If expected inflation increases
(but the market risk premium is unchanged), the required return on both stocks
will decrease by the same amount.

e. If
expected inflation decreases (but the market risk premium is unchanged), the
required return on both stocks will decrease but the decrease will be greater for
Stock Y.



 

. Stock A has a beta of 0.8 and
Stock B has a beta of 1.2. 50 percent of
Portfolio P is invested in Stock A and 50 percent is invested in Stock B. If
the market risk premium (kM – kRF) were to increase but
the risk-free rate (kRF) remained constant, which of the following
would occur?



a. The required return will
decrease by the same amount for both Stock A and Stock B.

b. The required return will
increase for both stocks but the increase will be greater for Stock B than for
Stock A.

c. The
required return will increase for Stock A but will decrease for Stock B.

d. The required return will
increase for Stock B but will decrease for Stock A.

e. The required return on Portfolio
P will remain unchanged.



 

. Stock A has a beta of 0.7, whereas Stock B has
a beta of 1.3. Portfolio P has 50
percent invested in both Stocks A and B.
Which of the following would occur if the market risk premium increased
by 

1 percentage point? (Assume that the
risk-free rate remains constant.)



a. The required return for Stock A would fall but
the required return for Stock B would increase.

b. The required return for Portfolio P would
remain unchanged.

c. The
required return for both stocks would increase by 1 percentage point.

d. The required return for Stock A would increase
by more than 

1 percentage point, while the return for Stock B would increase by less than 1
percentage point.

e. The required return for Portfolio P would
increase by 1 percentage point.



 

. Assume that the risk-free rate remains
constant, but that the market risk premium declines. Which of the following is likely to occur?



a. The required return on a stock with a beta =
1.0 will remain the same.

b. The required return on a stock with a beta <
1.0 will decline.

c. The required return on a stock with a beta >
1.0 will increase.

d. Statements b and c are correct.

e. All of the statements above are
correct.



 

. Which of the following statements is most
correct?



a. The slope of the security market line is beta.

b. A stock with a negative beta must have a
negative required rate of return.

c. If a stock’s beta doubles its required rate of
return must double.

d. If a stock has a beta equal to 1.0, its
required rate of return will be unaffected by changes in the market risk
premium.

e. None of the statements above is correct.



 

. Which of the following statements is most
correct?



a. Portfolio diversification reduces the
variability of the returns on the individual stocks held in the portfolio.

b. If an investor buys enough stocks, he or she
can, through diversification, eliminate virtually all of the non­market (or
company-specific) risk inherent in owning stocks. Indeed, if the portfolio contained all
publicly traded stocks, it would be riskless.

c. The required return on a firm’s common stock is
determined by its systematic (or market) risk.
If the systematic risk is known, and if that risk is expected to remain
constant, then no other information is required to specify the firm’s required
return.

d. A security’s beta measures its nondiversifiable
(systematic, or market) risk relative to that of an average stock.

e. A stock’s beta is less relevant as a measure of
risk to an investor with a well-diversified portfolio than to an investor who
holds only that one stock.







  

. Consider the following
information for three stocks, Stock A, Stock B, and Stock C. The returns on each of the three stocks are
positively correlated, but they are not perfectly correlated. (That is, all of the correlation coefficients
are between 0 and 1.)



 Expected Standard

 Stock Return Deviation Beta

Stock A 10% 20% 1.0

Stock B 10 20 1.0

Stock C 12 20 1.4



Portfolio
P has half of its funds invested in Stock A and half invested in Stock B. Portfolio Q has one third of its funds
invested in each of the three stocks.
The risk-free rate is 5 percent, and the market is in equilibrium. (That is, required returns equal expected
returns.) Which of the following
statements is most correct?



a. Portfolio P has a standard deviation of 20 percent.

b. Portfolio P’s coefficient of variation is greater than 2.0.

c. Portfolio Q’s expected return is 10.67 percent.

d. Portfolio Q has a standard deviation of 20 percent.

e. Portfolio P’s required return is greater than the required return on
Stock A.



Medium:



 

. You have developed the following data on three
stocks:



StockStandard
DeviationBeta

 A 0.15 0.79

 B 0.25 0.61

 C 0.20 1.29



If you are a risk
minimizer, you should choose Stock if it
is to be held in isolation and Stock if
it is to be held as part of a well-diversified portfolio.



a. A; A

b. A; B

c. B; A

d. C; A

e. C; B







 

. Assume that investors become increasingly
risk averse, so that the market risk premium increases. Also, assume that the risk-free rate and
expected inflation remain the same. Which
of the following is most likely to occur?



a. The required rate of return will decline for
stocks that have betas less than 1.0.

b. The required rate of return on the market, kM,
will remain the same.

c. The required rate of return for each stock in
the market will increase by an amount equal to the increase in the market risk
premium.

d. Statements a and b are correct.

e. None of the statements above is correct.



 

. In a portfolio of three different stocks,
which of the following could not be true?



a. The riskiness of the portfolio is less than the
riskiness of each of the stocks if each were held in isola­tion.

b. The riskiness of the portfolio is greater than
the riskiness of one or two of the stocks.

c. The beta of the portfolio is less than the beta
of each of the individual stocks.

d. The beta of the portfolio is greater than the beta of one or two of
the individual stocks’ betas.

e. None of the above (that is, they all could be
true, but not necessarily at the same time).

 

. Stock A has an expected return of 10 percent
and a standard deviation of 20 percent.
Stock B has an expected return of 12 percent and a standard deviation of
30 percent. The risk-free rate is 5
percent and the market risk premium, kM - kRF, is 6
percent. Assume that the market is in
equilibrium. Portfolio P has 50 percent
invested in Stock A and 50 percent invested in Stock B. The returns of Stock A and Stock B are
independent of one another. (That is,
their correlation coefficient equals zero.)
Which of the following statements is most correct?



a. Portfolio
P’s expected return is 11 percent.

b. Portfolio
P’s standard deviation is less than 25 percent.

c. Stock
B’s beta is 1.25.

d. Statements
a and b are correct.

e. All of
the statements above are correct.







  

. Stock A has a beta of 1.2 and a
standard deviation of 25 percent. Stock
B has
a beta of 1.4 and a standard deviation of 20 percent. Portfolio P was created
by investing in a combination of Stocks A and B. Portfolio P has a beta of 1.25 and a standard
deviation of 18 percent. Which of the
following statements is most correct?



a. Portfolio
P has the same amount of money invested in each of the two stocks.

b. The
returns of the two stocks are perfectly positively correlated (r = 1.0).

c. Stock
A has more market risk than Stock B but less stand-alone risk.

d. Portfolio P’s required return is greater than Stock A’s required
return.

e. Stock
A has more market risk than Portfolio P.

 

. Which of the following statements is most
correct?



a. Market participants are able to eliminate
virtually all market risk if they hold a large diversified portfolio of stocks.

b. Market participants are able to eliminate
virtually all company-specific risk if they hold a large diversified portfolio
of stocks.

c. It is possible to have a situation where the market risk of a single
stock is less than that of a well diversified portfolio.

d. Statements a and c are correct.

e. Statements b and c are correct.



 

. Stock A has a beta = 0.8, while Stock B has a
beta = 1.6. Which of the following
statements is most correct?



a. Stock B’s required return is double that of
Stock A’s.

b. An equally weighted portfolio of Stock A and
Stock B will have a beta less than 1.2.

c. If market participants become more risk averse,
the required return on Stock B will increase more than the required return for Stock
A.

d. All of the statements above are correct.

e. Statements a and c are correct.







  

. Which of the following statements is most
correct?



a. If you add enough randomly selected stocks to a
portfolio, you can completely eliminate all the market risk from the
portfolio.

b. If you formed a portfolio that included a large
number of low-beta stocks (stocks with betas less than 1.0 but greater than
-1.0), the portfolio would itself have a beta coefficient that is equal to the
weighted average beta of the stocks in the portfolio, so the portfolio would
have a relatively low degree of risk.

c. If you were restricted to investing in publicly
traded common stocks, yet you wanted to minimize the riskiness of your
portfolio as measured by its beta, then according to the CAPM theory you should
invest some of your money in each stock in the market. That is, if there were 10,000 traded stocks
in the world, the least risky portfolio would include some shares in each of
them.

d. Diversifiable risk can be eliminated by forming
a large portfolio, but normally even highly-diversified portfolios are subject
to market risk.

e. Statements b and d are correct.



 

. Inflation, recession, and high interest rates
are economic events that are characterized as



a. Company-specific risk that can be diversified
away.

b. Market risk.

c. Systematic risk that can be diversified away.

d. Diversifiable risk.

e. Unsystematic risk that can be diversified away.



 

. Which of the following statements is most
correct?



a. The beta coefficient of a stock is normally
found by running a regression of past returns on the stock against past returns
on a stock market index. One could also
construct a scatter diagram of returns on the stock versus those on the market,
estimate the slope of the line of best fit, and use it as beta.

b. It is theoretically possible for a stock to
have a beta of 1.0. If a stock did have a beta of 1.0, then, at least in
theory, its required rate of return would be equal to the risk-free
(default-free) rate of return, kRF.

c. If you found a stock with a zero beta and held it as the only stock
in your portfolio, you would by definition have a riskless portfolio. Your
1-stock portfolio would be even less risky if the stock had a negative beta.

d. The beta of a portfolio of stocks is always
larger than the betas of any of the individual stocks.

e. All of the statements above are correct.



 

. You have developed data that give (1) the
average annual returns on the market for the past five years, and (2) similar
information on Stocks A and B. If these
data are as follows, which of the possible answers best describes the
historical betas for A and B?



YearsMarketStock
AStock B

 1 0.03 0.16 0.05 

 2 -0.05 0.20 0.05 

 3 0.01 0.18 0.05 

 4 -0.10 0.25 0.05 

 5 0.06 0.14 0.05 



a. bA> 0; bB = 1

b. bA> +1; bB = 0

c. bA = 0; bB = -1

d. bA< 0; bB = 0

e. bA< -1; bB = 1



 

. Which of
the following statements is most correct?



a. Suppose the returns on two
stocks are negatively correlated. One
has a beta of 1.2 as determined in a regression analysis, while the other has a
beta of -0.6. The returns on the stock
with the negative beta will be negatively correlated with returns on most other
stocks in the market.

b. Suppose you are managing a stock
portfolio, and you have information that leads you to believe the stock market
is likely to be very strong in the immediate future. That is, you are confident the market is
about to rise sharply. You should sell
your high-beta stocks and buy low-beta stocks in order to take advantage of the
expected market move.

c. Collections Inc. is in the business of
collecting past-due accounts for other companies; that is, it is a collection
agency. Collections’ revenues, profits,
and stock price tend to rise during recessions. This suggests that Collections
Inc.’s beta should be quite high, say 2.0, because it does so much better than
most other companies when the economy is weak.

d. Statements a and b are correct.

e. Statements a and c are correct.







 

. Which of
the following is not a difficulty concerning beta and its estimation?



a. Sometimes a security or project
does not have a past history that can be used as a basis for calculating beta.

b. Sometimes,
during a period when the company is undergoing a change such as toward more
leverage or riskier assets, the calculated beta will be drastically different
than the “true” or “expected future” beta.

c. The beta of an “average stock,”
or “the market,” can change over time, sometimes drastically.

d. Sometimes the past data used to
calculate beta do not reflect the likely risk of the firm for the future because
conditions have changed.































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micro exam!!!!!!!!!!

Question
	
.
Over a 10-year period, our output growth rate = ?Q/Q = 40%, capital
growth rate = ?K/K = 30%, labor growth rate = ?L/L = 20%,
the elasticity of output with respect to capital and labor are aK
= 0.3 and aL = 0.7 respectively. Find productivity growth. ?Answer:

.


.
13%,

.
11%,

.
17%, or

.
15%



.
Question 18

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3 points 

Question 19

.
?
Suppose
the Fed purchased $1,200 billion worth of assets in bailing out the financial
institutions and in quantitative easing from 2008 to 2011. A. If the
deposit reserve requirement ratio is 10%, how much is the potential increase in
the U.S. money supply as a result of the Fed’s asset purchase? ?

.


.
?Your Answer: $_________billion

.


.
?B. Suppose that, as a result of the Fed’s
loose monetary policy, the private sector’s investment (I) increased by $700
billion. In addition, as part of the stimulus plan, government spending
(G) increased by $800 billion as well. Given a marginal propensity to
consume of 70%, how much would the U.S. GDP increase according to the
multiplier model in a closed economy??

.
Your Answer: $_________billion

.


.
?C. Following the previous question, suppose
the marginal propensity to import is 10%, how much would the U.S. GDP increase
according to the open-economy multiplier??Your Answer: $_________billion

.


.
?D. Suppose the Fed’s monetary policy
response to the 2008 financial crisis led to an eventual 50% increase in the
money supply, how does this affect the aggregate price level in the United
States according to the quantity theory of money (assuming the velocity of
money and real GDP are constant)??

.
Your Answer: % ________increase in the aggregate
price level??

10 points 

Question 20

.
?
For
a market basket of goods, it costs $1,000 in the United States, and 6,000 yuan
in China (yuan is the unit of the Chinese currency).

.


.
A.
 If the exchange rate is 6 yuan per dollar, where would you buy these
goods (assuming there is free trade and no transportation cost between the
United States and China)? ?

.
Choices
are:

.
a. Definitely in the United State, not
China?

.
b. Definitely in China, not the United
States

.
?c. Indifferent since the prices in the two
countries are the same if they are converted to one or the other currency.?

.
Your Answer: _________________(a / b / c)?

.


.


.
B. Suppose inflation is 4% in the United
States and 8.5% in China. What is the new equilibrium exchange rate according
to the purchasing power parity??

.
Your Answer: __________yuan/$ (keep two
digits after the decimal point)?

.


.
C. Does the dollar appreciate or depreciate?
By how much??

.
Your Answer: (appreciate or depreciate?)
____________

.
?By how much: _________% (keep two digits after
the decimal point)??

10 points 

Question 21

.
?
Refer
to the 2010 U.S. GDP information below. (Billions of dollars)

.
A. Was the United States total DOMESTIC
expenditure (C+I+G) more than, less than, or equal to total output in 2010??

.
Your Answer : (more than/ less than/ equal)?
__________?

.


.
B. How much was the U.S. financial account
balance ( IF; in billions of U.S. dollars)??

.
Your Answer : $___________ billion (keep two
digits after the decimal point)?

.
C. How much was the total domestic saving in the
United States ( ST; in billions of U.S. dollars)?

.
?Your Answer: $___________ billion (keep two
digits after the decimal point)?

.


.
D. Suppose that the government tax revenue was
$2,000 billion for 2010, what was the U.S. private sector’s saving (SP)
in 2010??

.
Your Answer: $_________ billion (keep two digits
after the decimal point)?

















Under gold standard
before World War I, the price of one ounce of gold was $20.67 and £4.2474.
Which of the following was an equilibrium exchange rate between the two
currencies according to the gold standard?

Answer


 

 

 

 
 

 
a.
 
 

 
$4.8665/£
 

 

 

 

 
 

 
b.
 
 

 
$0.2055/£
 

 

 

 

 
 

 
c.
 
 

 
£4.8665/$
 



	
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Law Multiple Choice Questions

Question
	
1.Javier gives written authorization to Tamara to sell his house.Javier dies on the October 4. On October 8, Tamara enters into a written contract on behalf of Javier to sell the house to Trudy for $100,000. Before Tamara entered into the contract,she showed the written authorization to Trudy. Javier's estate is
A. liable if the price is fair
B. not liabe
C.obligated to sell for $100,000 because Tamara had express authority
D. liable if Tamara knew Javier was decreased at the time of the contract
2.Ted is a janitor at Big Deal,Inc. One night,Ted is cleaning the boss's office and sits in the boss's chair. At that moment,a salesman walks in,thinks Ted is a manager, and offers to sell Big Deal Inc., 700widgets for $100 each. Ted thinks this sounds like a good deal,assumes the boss will be pleased,and signs the contract as an agent for Big Deal,Inc. The boss discovers this deal the next day and is angry because widgets cost $27 each. If Big Deal is obligated under the agreement, it's based on------authority
A.actual
B.implied
C.express
D.apparent
3.Carl,a liitle person with dwarfism,applies for a job. He is told he won't be hired because he is a little person. Carl sues,claiming discrimination under the Civil Rights Act. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Unless Carl can show that height requirement has a disparate impact on short people,he has no claim
B.Unless the employer can show that begin of a certain height is a bona fide job qualification,Carl has a good claim
C. Carl has a good claim
D.Carl has no claim
4.Eric has gradually been losing his eyesight,which has adversely affected his work. When the boss fires Eric,she tells him that she's letting him go because he can't see anymore. Eric's discharge is
A.not wrongful because it didn't involve a hiring decision
B. not wrongful if he can't perform the job without reasonable accommodations by the employer
C. wrongful if the employer can make a reasonable accommodation for his disability
D. wrongful because once hired,employees can't be discharged due to disability
5.Sal hires Antoinette to sell his house and gives her power of attorney that authorizes her to do,but the power of attorney says nothing about price. Sal tells Antoinette to take nothing less than$200,000. Harry offers Antoinette $195,000 for the house,and Antoinette accepts. If Sal is bound by the sale contract,the most likely reason------authority
A. express
B. implied
C.apparent
D.actual
6.Norma has worked for Big Factory for 15years,has never missed a day of work,and has always been an excellent worker. One day,without warning,Norma's supervisor firs her without any explanation. Norma knows of no reason for the termination.Which of the following statements is true?
A.Norma may file a bad faith action against her supervisor
B.Norma can't do anything as long as the reasons were nondiscriminatory
C.Norma may file a bad faith action against Big Factory
D. Norma can't do anything unless she lives in an employment-at-will jurisdiction
7.Lee hire Zeke to sell her house. She tells Zeke to ask for $200,000, but says she will take $175,000. Zeke's friend Victor asks Zeke about the house, and Zeke tells him that Lee will take $175,000. Victor offers $175,000, and Zeke accepts. Zeke violated his duty of
A. account
B. loyalty
C.obedience
D. due diligence
8. Billy works as a freelance writer for Big Books.Billy works in his own home and has contract with Big Books only to receive and return writing projects. Billy is a/an----------for Big Books
A.employee
B.independent contractor
C.fiduciary
D.agent
9. Bob's company was found in violation of ERISA. The violation likely relates to
A. failure to pay overtime
B.workplace safety
C.Bob's pension plan
D.workers'compensation
10. Tony tries to start a union at Big Tech,Inc. His employer learns of his attempt to organize a union and fires him.Big Tech's actions
A. are permitted if they first give Bob notice forbidding the union
B.are permitted
C.are permitted if the state has adopted right-to-work legislation
D.constitute an unfair labor practice