HIST405 Week 3 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April

HIST405 Week 3 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April

HIST405 Week 3 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2017 April

Subject: History / General History
Question
dq 1
The Market Revolution (graded)
Discuss America’s transportation revolution that took place during the first half of the 1800s, including the development of roads, canals, railroads, and steamboats. How did they contribute to the “market revolution?” Elaborate.

dq 2
Manifest Destiny (graded)
Why did the Mexican War of 1846 take place? Was the war necessary? Was it a good thing? What does this war tell us about this period of American history? Was it God’s plan that the U.S. extend from the Atlantic to the Pacific, or were imperialists looking for a way to defend what they planned to do anyway? Elaborate.

economics data bank

economics data bank

Question

____ 51. The problem with monopolies is their ability

(i) to do away with barriers to entry.

(ii) to price their product at a level that exceeds marginal cost.

(iii) to restrict output below the socially efficient level of production.

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (iii) only

d. (i), (ii), and (iii)

____ 52. One method used to control the ability of firms to capture monopoly profit in the United States is through

a. government purchase of products produced by monopolists.

b. government distribution of a monopolist's excess production.

c. enforcement of antitrust laws.

d. regulation of firms in highly competitive markets.

____ 53. The key issue in determining the efficiency of public versus private ownership of a monopoly is

a. the tendency for efficient management of publicly owned enterprises.

b. the inability of private monopolies to get rid of managers that are doing a bad job.

c. the propensity of private monopolies to generate excessive profits.

d. how ownership of the firm affects the cost of production.

____ 54. For a long while, electricity producers were thought to be a classic example of a natural monopoly. People

held this view because

a. the average cost of producing units of electricity by one producer in a specific region was

lower than if the same quantity were produced by two or more producers in the same

region.

b. the average cost of producing units of electricity by one producer in a specific region was

higher than if the same quantity were produced by two or more produced in the same

region.

c. the marginal cost of producing units of electricity by one producer in a specific region

was higher than if the same quantity were produced by two or more producers in the

same region.

d. electricity is a special non-excludable good that could never be sold in a competitive

market.

____ 55. When deciding what price to charge consumers, the monopolist may choose to charge them different prices

based on the customers'

a. geographical location.

b. age.

c. income.

d. All of the above are correct.

____ 56. Which of the following may eliminate some or all of the inefficiency that results from monopoly pricing?

a. The government can regulate the monopoly.

b. The monopoly can be prohibited from price discriminating.

c. The monopoly can be forced to operate at a point where its marginal revenue is equal to

its marginal cost.

d. None of the above would eliminate any inefficiency associated with a monopoly.

Figure 15-7

The figure below depicts the demand, marginal revenue, and marginal cost curves of a profit-maximizing

monopolist.

____ 57.Refer to Figure 15-7. If the monopoly firm is NOT allowed to price discriminate, then consumer surplus

amounts to

a. $0.

b. $500.

c. $1,000.

d. $2,000.

____ 58.Refer to Figure 15-7. If there are no fixed costs of production, monopoly profit without price discrimination

equals

a. $500.

b. $1,000.

c. $2,000.

d. $4,000.

____ 59.Refer to Figure 15-7. If there are no fixed costs of production, monopoly profit with perfect price

discrimination equals

a. $500.

b. $1,000.

c. $2,000.

d. $4,000.

Name: ________________________ ID: A

14

____ 60. A monopolist faces the following demand curve:

Price Quantity Demanded

$8 300

$7 400

$6 500

$5 600

$4 700

$3 800

$2 900

$1 1,000

The monopolist has fixed costs of $1,000 and has a constant marginal cost of $2 per unit. If the monopolist

were able to perfectly price discriminate, how many units would it sell?

a. 400

b. 500

c. 900

d. 4,200

____ 61. It is not uncommon to find that prescription drugs sell for more in the United States than they do in other

countries. Which of the following statements about this issue is most likely to be true?

a. Drug companies are engaging in price discrimination, and this practice certainly reduces

global social welfare.

b. Global social welfare could be improved if the price in the United States were reduced to

the price charged in other countries.

c. Global social welfare could be improved if the price in the other countries were

increased to the price charged in the United States.

d. Drug companies are engaging in price discrimination, but this might improve global

social welfare if it gives more people access to the drugs.

____ 62. An airline knows that there are two types of travelers: business travelers and vacationers. For a particular

flight, there are 100 business travelers who will pay $600 for a ticket while there are 50 vacationers who will

pay $300 for a ticket. There are 150 seats available on the plane. Suppose the cost to the airline of providing

the flight is $20,000, which includes the cost of the pilots, flight attendants, fuel, etc. How much profit will

the airline earn if it sets the price of a ticket at $600?

a. -$5,000

b. $15,000

c. $40,000

d. $70,000

Name: ________________________ ID: A

15

Table 15-5

Dreher's Designer Shirt Company, a monopolist, has the following cost and revenue information. Assume

that Dreher’s is able to engage in perfect price discrimination.

COSTS REVENUES

Quantity

Produced

Total Cost

($)

Marginal

Cost

Quantity

Demanded

Price

($)

Total

Revenue

Marginal

Revenue

0 100 -- 0 170 --

1 140 1 160

2 184 2 150

3 230 3 140

4 280 4 130

5 335 5 120

6 395 6 110

7 475 7 100

8 575 8 95

____ 63.Refer to Table 15-5. What are Dreher's Designer Shirt Company's fixed costs?

a. $100

b. $150

c. $354

d. $654

____ 64. There are two types of imperfectly competitive markets:

a. monopoly and monopolistic competition.

b. monopoly and oligopoly.

c. monopolistic competition and oligopoly.

d. monopolistic competition and cartels.

____ 65. Crude oil is primarily supplied to the world market by a few Middle Eastern countries. Such a market is an

example of a(n)

(i) imperfectly competitive market.

(ii) monopoly market.

(iii) oligopoly market.

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (i) and (iii)

d. (iii) only

____ 66. If there are many firms participating in a market, the market is either

a. an oligopoly or monopolistically competitive.

b. perfectly competitive or monopolistically competitive.

c. an oligopoly or perfectly competitive.

d. an oligopoly or a cartel.

Name: ________________________ ID: A

16

____ 67. A market structure with only a few sellers, offering similar or identical products, is known as

a. oligopoly.

b. monopoly.

c. monopolistic competition.

d. perfect competition.

Table 16-1

The following table shows the percentage of output supplied by the top eight firms in four different

industries.

Firm Industry A Industry B Industry C Industry D

1 0.24 0.46 0.10 0.32

2 0.13 0.24 0.08 0.16

3 0.10 0.10 0.06 0.08

4 0.08 0.05 0.05 0.04

5 0.05 0.04 0.04 0.02

6 0.03 0.03 0.03 0.01

7 0.02 0.02 0.02 0.01

8 0.01 0.01 0.01 0.01

____ 68.Refer to Table 16-1.What is the concentration ratio in Industry B?

a. 5%

b. 46%

c. 85%

d. 95%

____ 69. What do economists call a market structure in which there are many firms selling products that are similar

but not identical?

a. Perfect competition

b. Monopoly

c. Monopolistic competition

d. Oligopoly

Name: ________________________ ID: A

17

Table 16-3

The information in the table below shows the total demand for premium-channel digital cable TV

subscriptions in a small urban market. Assume that each digital cable TV operator pays a fixed cost of

$100,000 (per year) to provide premium digital channels in the market area and that the marginal cost of

providing the premium channel service to a household is zero.

Quantity Price (per year)

0 $120

3,000 $100

6,000 $ 80

9,000 $ 60

12,000 $ 40

15,000 $ 20

18,000 $ 0

____ 70.Refer to Table 16-3. Assume that there are two profit-maximizing digital cable TV companies operating in

this market. Further assume that they are able to collude on the price and quantity of premium digital channel

subscriptions to sell. As part of their collusive agreement they decide to take an equal share of the market.

How much profit will each company make?

a. $40,000

b. $170,000

c. $480,000

d. $540,000

____ 71.Refer to Table 16-3. Assume that there are two profit-maximizing digital cable TV companies operating in

this market. Further assume that they are not able to collude on the price and quantity of premium digital

channel subscriptions to sell. How many premium digital channel cable TV subscriptions will be sold

altogether when this market reaches a Nash equilibrium?

a. 3,000

b. 6,000

c. 9,000

d. 12,000

Name: ________________________ ID: A

18

Table 16-4

Imagine a small town in which only two residents, Tony and Jill, own wells that produce safe drinking water.

Each week Tony and Jill work together to decide how many gallons of water to pump, to bring the water to

town, and to sell it at whatever price the market will bear. To keep things simple, suppose that Tony and Jill

can pump as much water as they want without cost so that the marginal cost of water equals zero.

The weekly town demand schedule and total revenue schedule for water is shown in the table below.

Weekly

Quantity

(in gallons) Price

Weekly

Total Revenue

(and Total Profit)

0 $12 $ 0

10 11 110

20 10 200

30 9 270

40 8 320

50 7 350

60 6 360

70 5 350

80 4 320

90 3 270

100 2 200

110 1 110

120 0 0

____ 72.Refer to Table 16-4. If the market for water were perfectly competitive instead of monopolistic, how many

gallons of water would be produced and sold?

a. 70

b. 90

c. 110

d. 120

____ 73.Refer to Table 16-4. Suppose the town enacts new antitrust laws that prohibit Tony and Jill from operating

as a monopolist. What will the new price of water end up being once the Nash equilibrium is reached?

a. $3

b. $4

c. $5

d. $6

____ 74. When oligopolistic firms interacting with one another each choose their best strategy given the strategies

chosen by other firms in the market, we have

a. a cartel.

b. a group of oligopolists behaving as a monopoly.

c. a Nash equilibrium.

d. the perfectly competitive outcome.

Name: ________________________ ID: A

19

____ 75. As the number of firms in an oligopoly market

a. decreases, the market approaches the cartel outcome.

b. decreases, the market approaches the competitive market outcome.

c. increases, the market approaches the competitive market outcome.

d. increases, the market approaches the monopoly outcome

When potential workers apply for a job that requires extensive manual assembly

When potential workers apply for a job that requires extensive manual assembly

Question When potential workers apply for a job that requires extensive manual assembly of small intricate parts, they are initially given three different tests to measure their manual dexterity. The ones who are hired are then periodically given a performance rating on a 0 to 100 scale that combines their speed and accuracy in performing the required assembly operations. The file P14_47.xlsx lists the test scores and performance ratings for a randomly selected group of employees. It also lists their seniority (months with the company) at the time of the performance rating. a. Run the regression of Performance Rating versus all four explanatory variables. List the equation, the R-square value, and the standard error of estimate. Do all of the regression coefficients have the signs you would expect? Briefly explain. b. Referring to the equation in part a, if a worker (outside of the 80 in the sample) has 15 months of seniority and test scores of 57, 71, and 63, give a prediction and an approximate 95% prediction interval for this worker's Performance Rating score. c. Arguably, the three test measures provide overlapping (redundant) information. It might be sensible to regress Performance Rating versus only two explanatory variables, Seniority and Average Test, where Average Test is the average of the three test scores, that is, Average Test = (Test1 + Test2 + Test3)/3. Run this regression and report the same measures as in part a: the equation itself, R-square, and the standard error of estimate. Can you argue that this equation is just as good as the equation in part a ? Explain briefly.

ECON RMI 4150 Final exam – Theory of Risk, Firms and risk

ECON RMI 4150 Final exam – Theory of Risk, Firms and risk

ECON RMI 4150 Final exam – Theory of Risk, Firms and risk

Subject: Economics / General Economics
Question
ECON/RMI 4150: Theory of Risk
Spring 2017
3rd Problem Set,
(Questions are from the Fall 2012 Final exam.)

1. Firms and risk.
a. Please explain briefly explain (using ideas discussed in class) why a firm
should NOT care about risk. (2-3 sentences)
b. Please explain briefly (using ideas discussed in class) two reasons given in
class why a firm SHOULD care about risk. (2-3 sentences) 2. Index vs indemnity triggers.
a. Please explain briefly what an index trigger is and how it is different from
an indemnity trigger. (1-2 sentences)
b. What are two key advantages discussed in class of using index triggers
instead of indemnity triggers? (1-2 sentences)
c. What is one key advantage discussed in class of using indemnity triggers
instead of index triggers? (1 sentence per advantage) 3. Consider an entrepreneur with no wealth but a great idea. The entrepreneur wants to raise $1 million needed to start a business. The entrepreneur is rational, maximizes expected utility and is risk neutral. There is a 75 percent chance that the business will go well and make
money, in which case the business will generate $1.5 million; there is a 25
percent chance that the business will go badly and lose money, in which
case it will generate only $0.5 million. The entrepreneur can raise money from
o a bank loan (in which case the entrepreneur receives $x million
from the bank promises to pay the bank a fixed dollar amount out
of the proceeds from the business) and/or from
o issuing stock (in which case the entrepreneur receives $x million
from stock investors and promises to pay them a percent of what is
left over after the bank loan has been repaid). Both the bank and the stock investors would be willing to accept an
expected return of zero, so that they would be willing to put in $1 million
for the promise of getting $1 million back on average. There are no taxes. In the event of bankruptcy, legal fees will total $100,000.
a. Imagine that the entrepreneur funds the project by raising $700,000 from a
bank loan and $300,000 from issuing stock.
i. What amount must the entrepreneur promise to repay the bank
(except in bankruptcy, when the bank will only get the remaining
proceeds after legal fees) to make them willing to lend?
ii. What proportion of the company (the proportion of the proceeds
after the bank has been repaid) must the entrepreneur give to the
stock investors?
iii. Please fill in the following amounts that will be received by each
party if the project goes well, if it goes badly, and on average
Project goes well Project goes badly Expected outcome
Bank
Stock investors
Entrepreneur
Lawyers
Total
b. Imagine that the entrepreneur funds the project by raising $500,000 from a
bank loan and $500,000 from issuing stock. i. ii. iii. What amount must the entrepreneur promise to repay the bank
(except in bankruptcy, when the bank will only get the remaining
proceeds after legal fees)?
What proportion of the company (the proportion of the proceeds
after the bank has been repaid) must the entrepreneur give to the
stock investors?
Please fill in the following amounts that will be received by each
party if the project goes well, if it goes badly, and on average.
Project goes well Project goes badly Expected outcome Bank
Stock investors
Entrepreneur
Lawyers
Total
c. Which financing approach (a) or (b) makes more sense for the
entrepreneur? Please explain briefly and quantify the size of the benefit of
using the better approach.
d. How much would the entrepreneur be willing to pay for full insurance (if
he could precommit to buy this insurance before raising money for his
project) in case (a) and in case (b)?

help with 450 word part for paper

help with 450 word part for paper

Question

Prepare a 1,750- to 2,100-word paper in which you explore the ways in which the humanities reflect changing concepts of nature and the individual in different historical periods. Each team should focus on the Early, High, and Late Middle Ages. Be sure to address the following items in your paper:

•****** Provide a brief summary for each period of the important developments in the humanities that characterized the period. *****

this is my part for the paper to provide a brief summary of the Early , Late, and Middle ages and the important developments in the humanities that characterized the period. just need 450 words with intext citations and references just one reference is fine but must cite where you got info. I need by 10 am eastern time...

Exam employee benefits 100 MCQs

Exam employee benefits 100 MCQs

Question

Exam employee benefits

1. Edward Marchand, the owner of Archway Manufacturing, provides on-site ATMs and dry cleaning
pick-up for his employees. Mr. Marchand is taking a _______ approach to employee benefit planning.
A. marketing research
B. collective bargaining
C. life-cycle
D. work/life
2. In most states, if an employee becomes involuntarily unemployed because of a layoff, how long does he
or she have before unemployment benefits run out?
A. 26 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 52 weeks
D. 39 weeks
3. Which one of the following statements describes an advantage of using a telephone system to
communicate information to employees regarding benefit plans?
A. Employees are able to get the information at a time that's convenient for them.
B. The benefit planners don't have to listen to criticisms about the benefit plan.
C. The lack of human interaction makes it easier for shy employees to make their benefit choices.
D. Telephone systems are easy to update with new-employee and new-dependent information.
4. The following choices describe four individuals at the time they became disabled. Which one of these
individuals meets the work requirements for receiving disability under Social Security?
A. Carolyn, a 31-year-old, worked for three consecutive years after her children were old enough to be in school.
B. Marilyn, a 24-year-old, has earned credits equal to four quarters of coverage.
C. Carlos, a 25-year-old blind man, is not yet fully insured under Social Security.
D. Ivan, a 23-year-old, has worked for two consecutive years at a job for which he earns $25,000 per year.
5. Which of the following approaches would be best for using marketing research to determine the benefits
that employees need?
A. Conduct a meeting with senior management to determine what benefit changes should be made.
B. Give employees questionnaires with open-ended questions so that they may express their concerns and opinions about the
benefit plan.
C. Conduct personal interviews with employees; then conduct a competitive analysis to determine what your competitors are
offering.
D. Conduct personal interviews with employees or have them complete questionnaires with closed-ended questions.
6. If you were laid off from your job and became temporarily disabled while still unemployed, which of the
following states would you hope to be living in?
A. Florida
B. New Jersey
C. Alabama
D. Ohio
7. Which one of the following objectives would be appropriate for an employer to use with the benefit plan
that he or she offers?
A. To implement an annual increase of 3 percent in the salary of management employees
B. To establish and maintain an employee benefit program that rewards the efforts of the employees
C. To establish a holiday bonus plan for the years 2003 and 2004
D. To provide Prudential medical insurance to all employees
8. What does the term pay-as-you-go mean in relation to the method by which Social Security pays
benefits?
A. Monthly premiums paid by all workers are used to pay benefits.
B. Taxes on current workers are used to pay benefits to current beneficiaries.
C. General revenues are used to pay Social Security benefits.
D. Taxes on the benefits of retired people are used to pay benefits to current beneficiaries.
9. Martin is a 63-year-old fully insured employee. How will his 65-year-old wife pay for her Part A
Medicare?
A. She will pay through the old age and survivors' trust fund.
B. She will pay monthly premiums and will be supplemented from federal revenues.
C. She won't have to pay for her Part A Medicare.
D. She will pay through a flat tax on income up to a certain amount.
10. The term primary insurance amount refers to the amount that
A. a dependent spouse receives at the age of 62.
B. a worker receives each month if he or she retires at full retirement age.
C. an employee must pay toward health insurance.
D. an employee must earn to become fully insured under Social Security.
11. Which one of the following statements is true for workers' compensation laws?
A. Most state workers' compensation laws cover agriculture workers and domestic employees.
B. Under the previously held standard of the fellow-servant doctrine, any evidence of a worker's negligence would deny him or
her coverage for an on-the-job injury.
C. Workers' compensation laws are generally based on the principle of liability without fault.
D. All states require employers to purchase workers' compensation from an insurance company.
12. Which of the following important elements should be established before the benefit-planning process
begins?
A. Objectives
B. Surveys
C. Medical insurance rates
D. Outsourcing vendor bids
13. Joe, a 27-year-old man, was in a car accident in July 2003. He was paralyzed from the neck down and
is now in a wheelchair. Joe graduated from college in June 1999 and got his first job in July 1999, with an
annual salary of $20,000. Until the day of his accident, he continued to work for the same company,
receiving annual salary increases. Is Joe eligible for Social Security disability insurance? Why or why not?
A. No, Joe didn't make enough money during his years of employment.
B. Yes, at the age of 27, Joe would need only three years of work credit to be eligible, and he has four years of work credit.
C. Yes, he's currently insured because he has at least six quarters of coverage out of the last 13-quarter period.
D. No, Joe doesn't have enough work credit because he didn't begin his career until 1999.
14. Which one of the following methods is becoming the increasingly accepted method for determining
employee benefit needs?
A. Competitor analysis
B. Collectively bargained benefits
C. Marketing research
D. Employer perception of employee needs
15. Eligibility for Social Security benefits depends upon an individual's credit for a minimum amount of
work under the program. What is this credit based upon?
A. Special savings requirements
B. Monthly premiums
C. Quarters of coverage
D. Earnings per year
16. At what age do disabled widows and widowers become eligible for Medicare Part A at no cost?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 50
17. Of the following items, which accounts for the largest payroll deductions for employees?
A. Educational assistance
B. Medical insurance
C. Social Security and Medicare taxes
D. Life insurance
End of exam
18. The main objective of unemployment insurance is to
A. provide temporary monetary assistance for individuals who are involuntarily out of work.
B. assist an employer in acquiring appropriate personnel in times of need.
C. assist the federal government in tracking the unemployment rate.
D. provide funding to the Social Security and Medicare programs.
19. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the Social Security and Medicare reserve trust
funds?
A. Both funds are sufficient for providing coverage up to and well beyond 2040.
B. The reserves in these funds are relatively small.
C. It's illegal for the U.S. Treasury to borrow from these funds to cover government deficits.
D. The funds remain adequate due to increased payroll taxes.
20. With respect to communicating employee benefits, which one of the following devices is federally
mandated?
A. Face-to-face meetings with employees to be sure everyone understands the plan
B. Disclosure provisions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act
C. Computer access for each employee to retrieve benefit information 24 hours a day
D. Written communication explaining in-depth the benefit plan
21. If an employer wants to provide life insurance as a benefit but can't afford to offer a large amount,
which of the following contract provisions would that employer probably use?
A. Combination benefit schedule
B. Position schedule
C. Earnings schedule
D. Flat-benefit schedule
22. Under what condition would it be a good idea for an employer to offer supplemental long-ter m disability
income insurance at the employee's expense?
A. The employer would like to attract and retain employees.
B. The job that the majority of the employees do is hazardous.
C. The employees have requested the additional insurance on the employee benefit survey.
D. The employer would like the employees to pay for more of their own benefits.
23. Berk's Manufacturing requires all of its nondisabled employees to retire when they become eligible for
Medicare. What law is this company breaking?
A. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
B. Social Security Act
C. Mental Health Parity Act
D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
24. Suppose an employee with a chronic medical condition were allowed to choose a higher amount of
group insurance benefits. This situation an example of
A. determination of eligibility.
B. contributory selection.
C. preexisting condition.
D. adverse selection.
25. What is one good reason for an employer to provide group universal life insurance to employees?
A. This type of insurance is the main incentive in attracting and retaining the best employees.
B. The coverage is versatile enough to meet the needs of each employee.
C. The life insurance can still be available at a group rate.
D. Employees can continue to have insurance coverage after retirement.
26. If an employee has $100,000 in group term life insurance and dies at the age of 67, what amount may be
paid to the beneficiaries on his or her death if reductions are taken based on age?
A. $35,000
B. $65,000
C. $67,000
D. $89,000 ??????
27. What event may allow an employee to begin collecting some of his or her life insurance money while he
or she is still alive?
A. The employee is diagnosed with AIDS.
B. The employee is experiencing a hardship.
C. The employee is diagnosed with diabetes.
D. The employee is in the process of buying a house.
28. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding beneficiary designation of death benefits
under group insurance?
A. Some insurance contracts require that a change in a designated beneficiary be specified to the insurance company in writing.
B. If an employee has no designated living beneficiary, death benefits are paid to the state.
C. Some states prohibit naming the employer as the beneficiary.
D. Without exception, an employee has the right to name his or her beneficiary.
29. Bob wants to retire. He knows how much he'll receive for his monthly pension. What will help him feel
secure that inflation won't increase his bills so much that he can't afford to pay them?
A. Social Security
B. ERISA
C. COLA
D. COBRA
30. Which one of the following benefits may be included by an employer as extra coverage in accidental
death and dismemberment insurance?
A. The employer is given a temporary employee until the disabled employee can return.
B. The beneficiary of the disabled employee is given transportation to the employee's rehabilitation facility.
C. The deceased employee's body is flown home.
D. Funeral costs are paid.
31. Sarah Mason has group life insurance through her employer. One option Sarah has at retirement is to
A. keep the group life insurance the same as it was before retirement.
B. transfer the balance in the group life insurance account into an IRA.
C. transfer the life insurance benefit to a working spouse.
D. increase the amount of the pure insurance.
32. The short-term disability benefits from an employer are combined with _______ to make sure that the
employee doesn't receive benefits that are more than his or her salary.
A. earnings from employment
B. pension-plan payments
C. sick-leave plans
D. workers' compensation payments
33. Why might an employer with fewer than 15 employees be required to offer medical insurance benefits
to a pregnant employee?
A. Because the employer offers medical insurance benefits to nonpregnant employees
B. Because the employer may be held responsible if the child is born with medical problems
C. Because the state in which the employer operates requires it
D. Because the employer provides sick leave for employees
34. Bob, a 10-year employee of Company X, is in the Army Reserve. Bob's Reserve unit was called to
serve overseas for three months. Company X told Bob that his position would be held for him until he
returned. Bob was permanently injured, losing an arm and a foot while fighting overseas. When he
returned, what would most likely be Bob's disability income payment?
A. Bob would receive no payments.
B. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay after his 30 days of sick leave were used.
C. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay from Company X for the first six months of his disability and 60 percent thereafter.
D. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay from Company X as soon as he returned to the United States.
35. What is the term used to describe a situation in which an employee maintains his or her group coverage
after employment is terminated?
A. Portability
B. Persistency
C. Comity
D. Underwriting
36. Regarding underwriting considerations, what information may an employer have to provide to an
insurance company to show that the company is insurable?
A. The employer's financial records
B. The firm's total number of employees
C. References from customers
D. The employees' health histories
37. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding paid time off programs?
A. A PTO program encourages employees to take time off for specified sick-leave days, regardless of whether they're sick or
not.
B. An employee is assured a specified bank of leave days, for any purpose, at full pay.
C. An employee is assured a specified bank of leave days, for any purpose, at a slightly reduced level of pay.
D. PTO programs haven't impacted the average number of sick-leave days that employees are likely to take.
38. A disability plan with a COLA most likely would help prevent which of the following from happening?
End of exam
A. The employee can't afford the cost of groceries after retirement.
B. The employee can't get a reduction in the cost of prescription medication.
C. The employee doesn't qualify for Medicaid.
D. The employee doesn't have medical insurance to cover the cost of hospitalization.
39. Suppose an employer has a pressing need to attract new engineers. As an incentive, the company
increases its amount of life insurance for its engineers from $80,000 to $120,000, while coverage for all
other company positions remains the same. This company's life insurance benefits are most likely based on
a/an _______ schedule.
A. combination of benefits
B. earnings
C. position
D. flat-benefit
40. Suppose an employer makes a job offer to a potential employee. However, the employer then
discovers that the potential new hire has a level of hearing loss that would interfere with his job
performance. Even though the employer feels the job candidate is the best qualified among current
applicants, he withdraws the job offer because it would cost the company a significant amount of money to
accommodate his disability. The company is supported in its decision by the _______ Act.
A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability
B. Mental Health Parity
C. Social Security
D. Americans with Disabilities
41. What has been a contributing factor in the rise in health care costs from the 1970s to the 1990s?
A. SIDS
B. Medicaid
C. Medicare
D. AIDS
42. When Blue Cross first began, it was in the business of providing coverage for
A. physician care for the elderly.
B. physician care for the financially needy.
C. prescriptions.
D. hospitalization.
43. Mary goes to the doctor and pays for her visit. When she gets home, she must fill out a form and submit
it to the insurance company so she can be reimbursed. What type of insurance does she most likely have?
A. Indemnity
B. HMO
C. POS
D. The Blues
4 4. Tracy is a benefits manager for FHB associates. She has been in the benefits industry for nearly 30
years and has seen many changes throughout her career. What change in HMOs has she most likely seen
that her employees are the happiest about?
A. New members can now choose their primary provider from a list of possible physicians.
B. New members are now assigned a primary care physician.
C. Limited choice of providers is available within a certain area.
D. Limited treatment is provided outside the approved network providers.
45. Who ran the first medical expense "insurance" organizations that soon came to be called Blue Cross
plans?
A. Charity organizations
B. Hospitals
C. Physicians
D. Employers
46. Which accrediting organization would be most likely to post HMO and POS reports on the Internet?
A. HEDIS
B. NCQA
C. URAC
D. JCAHO
47. The major shift in health care in the 1990s was that most employees were
A. now covered by an indemnity plan.
B. responsible for paying for their own insurance.
C. now covered under a managed care plan.
D. now covered under a traditional insurance plan.
48. If a woman covered by a managed care plan believes that she's pregnant, in most states, whom should
she call first?
A. Her primary care physician, to make an appointment so that she can be referred to an obstetrician
B. Her obstetrician, because she doesn't need preauthorization for care
C. Her managed care plan, to get preauthorization for care
D. Her employer, to get preauthorization for care
49. HMOs and PPOs are examples of
A. point-of-service plans.
B. the Blues.
C. Medicaid.
D. managed care plans.
50. A benefit plan that provides a less expensive choice for treatment is often a smart way to reduce costs.
An example of this type of plan is
A. requiring higher deductibles.
B. implementing maximum benefits.
C. allowing the use of birthing centers.
D. allowing longer hospital stays.
51. Bob is insured under a managed care plan. Under this plan, he's allowed to
A. participate in a weight-control program.
B. go to any hospital he wants.
C. go to any doctor he wants.
D. avoid review requirements.
52. A new mom delivered her healthy baby by cesarean section on Monday at 8 P.M. Her insurance
company has told her doctor that if she goes home on Wednesday by 8 P.M, it will provide a visit by a
nurse to the new mom's home. Is the insurance company able to offer this benefit? Why, or why not?
A. No, the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act makes it mandatory that a new mom with a cesarean section remain
in the hospital for a full 96 hours after delivery.
B. Yes, the insurance company may offer this as an option to staying in the hospital because hospital expenses are remarkably
high.
C. Yes, the new mom is allowed to have a nurse come to her home because she didn't use the full allowed amount of recovery
time in the hospital.
D. No, the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act doesn't allow extra benefits for patients who don't use the 96 hours
of allowed recovery time in the hospital unless those who stay receive it as well.
53. Which one of the following types of review is conducted after a patient has already been treated for the
purpose of determining if the treatment was appropriate?
A. Reactive
B. Concurrent
C. Retrospective
D. Prospective
54. Suppose an employee's 18-year-old son has group medical insurance as a dependent of the employee.
Which one of the following reasons would cause the son to lose his insurance benefits?
A. The son joins the Navy.
B. The son moves away to go to college.
C. The son graduates from high school.
D. The employee gets divorced.
55. Company X must make sure that it provides HMO coverage as an option in its benefit-selection
process. What act would require Company X to do this?
A. Americans with Disabilities Act
B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
C. Financial Services Modernization Act
D. Health Maintenance Organization Act
56. Julio wants data to compare the performance of three different managed care plans before he makes a
choice for his company as to which one will be most effective for his employees. Which tool will be most
effective for these comparisons?
A. Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set
B. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
C. National Committee for Quality Insurance
D. Utilization Review Accreditation Commission
57. Jim and Betty are married with one child, and both are employed by the same company. Jim, who was
born on February 9, 1968, has been with the company for 10 years. Betty, who was born on May 12,
1965, has been with the company for eight years. Who is the primary provider of health care coverage for
the child?
A. Both Betty and Jim, because they have the same insurance
B. Betty, because she's older than Jim
C. Jim, because he's been with the company longer than Betty
D. Jim, because of his date of birth
End of exam
58. Continental Company employs 22 people—14 males and 8 females. This company would be
considered a _______ employer.
A. well-balanced
B. small
C. discriminatory
D. growing
59. What was the initial reason for the dramatic rise in health care coverage in the 1960s?
A. The Depression
B. The increase in employee benefits
C. The introduction of HMOs
D. The introduction of Medicare and Medicaid
60. Because Dr. Roberts participates in an IPA, what type of patients can she see?
A. Only Medicare and Medicaid patients
B. Only patients who have been assigned to her
C. HMO patients
D. Any patient she wants to see
61. When an employer self-funds its company's benefits, management may choose to outsource some
related administrative functions. This sort of arrangement would be covered under a/an
A. cost-plus scheme.
B. ASO contract.
C. self-funding clause.
D. stop-loss coverage plan.
62. Why would an employer want to consider having a shorter dental probationary period?
A. To attract and retain new employees
B. To reduce the volume of first-year claims
C. To provide care immediately to avoid greater dental problems later
D. To make sure the employees' dental health is acceptable
63. Employees of the Hikesman Group are eligible for three months' maternity leave. According to law, if an
employee adopts a child, that employee is eligible for _______ percent of the maternity leave.
A. 50
B. 0
C. 100
D. 25
64. A good reason for an employer to convert its traditional benefits program to a cafeteria plan is
A. reducing employee discontent.
B. better managing negotiations with unions.
C. reducing the risk of adverse selection.
D. lowering costs.
65. If an employer provides a preretirement-counseling program for its employees, the program would be
considered to be
A. a form of extra payment to employees.
B. an extra service to employees.
C. a discrimination in favor of older employees.
D. legally required social insurance.
66. Which one of the following is considered as a wellness program?
A. Treatment for drug abuse
B. Access to Alcoholics Anonymous
C. On-site counseling with a therapist
D. On-site mammogram screenings
67. Which one of the following conditions represents a valid reason for paid time off?
A. Serving in active military duty
B. Conducting research as a faculty member
C. Caring for a sick child
D. Attending a program of education
68. Simpson, Inc. is seeking increased available cash for investment purposes. The company's CFO
examines the company's funding methods for group insurance and finds a way to use insurance payments
for an extra three months. Most likely the CFO has opted for a
A. premium-delay arrangement.
B. self-funding plan.
C. cost-plus arrangement.
D. minimum-premium plan.
69. How many dental cleaning(s) do most dental plans allow in one year?
A. Three
B. One
C. Two
D. Four
70. Suppose a movie theater provides movie tickets to its employees. This benefit is considered to be a
A. service award.
B. no-additional-cost service.
C. service plan.
D. taxable service.
71. Regarding company wellness programs, which of the following statements is correct?
A. They're typically initiated by small companies with only a few employees.
B. Such programs are very seldom integrated with managed care plans.
C. No evidence indicates that such programs increase productivity or employees' sense of well-being.
D. The costs of such programs are often offset by the lowered costs of medical expenses.
72. Carlos has lived in a long-term care facility for two years. He had to go into the hospital for 10 days.
When he was released from the hospital, he had to find a new place to live. What was probably the reason
for this predicament?
A. His care coordination benefit was canceled.
B. He didn't have a bed reservation benefit.
C. His respite-care benefits didn't continue during the hospital stay.
D. His 10-day absence from the facility required that he reapply for long-term benefits.
73. Veracruz Corp. is paying heavy dental expenses for employees who have been in the dental plan for
only one or two months. Which one of the following options could the company adopt to reduce these
expenses?
A. Allow employees to select dental insurance year-round.
B. Establish a late enrollment period in which employees can make their dental selections at a later date.
C. Increase the benefits directly following enrollment.
D. Reduce benefits for employees for a period of time after late enrollment.
74. Which one of the following types of alternative funding schemes is mainly aimed at reducing state
premium taxes?
A. Premium-delay arrangement
B. Retrospective-rating arrangement
C. Minimum premium plan
D. Cost-plus arrangement
75. Adoptions, name changes, and bankruptcies can be covered under
A. FMLA.
B. property and liability insurance plans.
C. cost-plus arrangements.
D. legal expense insurance plans.
76. Which type of group benefit plan probably uses self-funding more than the rest?
A. Long-term disability plan
B. Short-term disability income plan
C. Retrospect-rating plan
D. Noncontributory plan
77. A chronically ill person is being cared for at home by her grandson. The grandson decides to take a
two-week vacation to Italy. What long-term care benefit would most likely provide care for the
grandmother while her grandson is away?
A. Intermediate care
B. Adult day care
C. Respite care
D. Custodial care
78. Under which type of group legal expense plan would an employee be expected to pay the complete
attorney's charges?
A. Contingency plan
B. Comprehensive plan
C. Referral and discount plan
End of exam
D. Access plan
79. Debating the pros and cons of employee child-care plans, Lorraine maintains that the most common
approach is to provide reimbursements to employees for making their own child-care arrangements.
Lawrence neither agrees nor disagrees with Lorraine's contention, but he insists that the number of onsite
child-care facilities is growing. Who is correct?
A. Both Lawrence and Lorraine are correct.
B. Only Lorraine is correct.
C. Only Lawrence is correct.
D. Neither Lawrence nor Lorraine is correct.
80. A stop-smoking program for employees is considered to be a/an _______ program.
A. lifestyle management
B. employee assistance
C. fitness
D. medical screening
81. Acme Co. uses a particular retirement plan to finance the business. This plan is called a/an
A. employee savings of pensions.
B. employer savings option plan.
C. employee security ownership plan.
D. employee stock ownership plan.
82. A major cause for the establishment of the Social Security system was the
A. collapse of the stock market.
B. Great Depression.
C. Revenue Act of 1921.
D. Revenue Act of 1926.
83. McCarthy Plumbing pays its employees a retirement benefit of 15 percent of their ending salary,
regardless of the amount of time they've worked for the company. What type of defined-benefit plan does
McCarthy Plumbing offer?
A. Guaranteed-account formula
B. Flat-benefit formula
C. Past service
D. Unit-benefit formula
84. A qualified joint and survivor annuity is a/an
A. mandatory death benefit for a spouse.
B. postretirement death benefit for a spouse that's payable even if the spouse remarries.
C. nontaxable savings plan.
D. open-ended death benefit in which a spouse can enroll at any time.
85. Under ERISA, how often must the assets of all qualified plans be valued by the actuary?
A. Every other year
B. Every three years
C. Every five years
D. Every year
86. John works for a company that uses the fractional rule to determine the accrued retirement benefit
granted to its employees. John retires at age 60 after working for the company for 20 years. The plan's
normal retirement age is 65. If John receives a benefit of $40,000 at 65, what will he receive when he
retires at age 60?
A. $32,000
B. $20,000
C. $35,000
D. $28,000
87. Les is a high-level executive with a seven-figure salary. Part of his executive compensation includes a
pension. What type of pension is Les most likely to have?
A. Cadillac plan
B. Highly compensated plan
C. Qualified plan
D. Nonqualified plan
88. Worth & Son Inc. is considering a pension plan that would integrate with the participant's Social Security
benefits. Why would the company want to do this?
A. To lower the cost for the employer
B. To make the benefit plan easier to understand and administer
C. To encourage retirement of the older employees
D. To attract and retain younger employees
89. Matrix Insurance holds the assets of Stream Corporation's qualified retirement plan in a separate
account. What is the probable reason that Matrix would do so?
A. Matrix Insurance is a funding agency.
B. Stream Corporation doesn't have a stable benefit disbursement history.
C. Stream Corporation is a whole-life contract provider.
D. Matrix Insurance and Stream Corporation are partners.
90. Regarding contributory pension plans, which statement is most accurate?
A. The contributory approach lowers the cost of pension benefit plans.
B. Employees appreciate their benefit plans more when they contribute to benefit funding.
C. Contributory plans give employees some degree of choice in allocating their compensation between cash and deferred
benefits.
D. The least favorable contributory plan involves salary reduction.
91. Which one of the following pension plans is considered to be a profit-sharing plan?
A. Money-purchase pension plan
B. Defined-benefit pension plan
C. Age-weighted plan
D. Cash-balance pension plan
92. Gahanna Inc. receives tax benefits from its retirement plan. Therefore, you can probably assume that
the plan is
A. exempt.
B. qualified.
C. federally mandated.
D. nonqualified.
93. Which one of the following groups would be exempt from minimum funding standards?
A. Physicians
B. Electricians
C. Lawyers
D. Postal workers
94. Ken wants to appeal a tax assessment of $20,000. He would like to be able to appeal the assessment
without having to pay the $20,000 first. Which court should he appeal to?
A. Federal District Court
B. Federal Appeals Court
C. U.S. Tax Court
D. U.S. Claims Court
95. For all practical purposes, which of the following is the primary source of significant regulations
regarding employee benefits?
A. Internal Revenue Service
B. Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation
C. Department of Labor
D. Constitution of the United States
96. Overall, the simplest form of a qualified plan is a _______ plan.
A. government subsidized
B. target pension
C. money-purchase
D. profit-sharing
97. Jeff and his wife have been separated for six months and have filed for divorce . Jeff retired from his
company last week, and his benefits department gave him a form to sign that would give his spouse an
annuity for the rest of her life. Jeff doesn't want his wife to receive these benefits. What must he do?
A. Once he and his wife are divorced, the annuity will be canceled.
B. He must send written confirmation to the benefit administrator that he doesn't desire this benefit.
C. He doesn't have to do anything. Unless the form is signed by Jeff, the annuity won't be valid.
D. He must have his wife sign the form (refusing the benefit) and have it notarized.
98. Mr. Miesner owns a 25 percent interest in the company where he's the CEO. Based on this
information, you can assume that Mr. Miesner is
A. a leased employee.
End of exam
B. ineligible for special tax treatment.
C. a highly compensated employee.
D. eligible for early retirement.
99. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employers from discrimination based on race, religion, sex, or
national origin. Which of these factors had a significant impact on pension designs?
A. National origin
B. Race ???
C. Religion
D. Sex???
100. OASDI is an acronym that explains how to calculate
A. final pension numbers.
B. Social Security benefits.
C. maximum offset allowance.
D. service dates

Marketing Research Paper

Marketing Research Paper

Question

Follow the guidelines of a professional report which includes the following:

The final project for this course is to combine the information gained from a quantitative survey and a qualitative focus group into one cohesive 10 to 15 page, double-spaced report that addresses a research objective.

The cover page can contain graphics. Overall, it should look professional and contain the company name, class name, Professors name, Bellevue University, and date.

Executive Summary page – ¾ of a page maximum, completed last, that provides a summary (not overview) of the entire Project.

Table of Contents page

The body of your paper which contains the quantitative survey portion followed by the qualitative focus group portion concluding with an overall analysis and at least two solid recommendations.

Reference Page – a minimum of six references are required.

Appendices (final survey and tallies; focus group outline and questions plus sample responses from questions)

The assignment needs to be double spaced, 12 pt. font.

Sub-titles need to be italicized (on a separate line) reflecting the subject being discussed and used appropriately throughout the paper.

The first line of a paragraph needs to be indented five spaces. Paragraphs need to be written in a clear concise manner using proper grammar, spelling, and punctuation indicating gained knowledge of the subject matter.

Use APA Endnotes (Author, Date) followed by a period to properly cite all information; for example: (Jones, 2007).

Follow the APA examples in this syllabus for in-text and reference page. APA non-compliance results in a 10 percent loss in total points.

Include an APA reference page, listing all sources used in alphabetical order.

,
Attachments
(134.5 KB)

ITCC698 Assignment 4 Thesis or Creative Project Research Design

ITCC698 Assignment 4 Thesis or Creative Project Research Design

ITCC698 Assignment 4 Thesis or Creative Project Research Design

Subject: General Questions / General General Questions
Question
• Submit your Research Design

• Review your articles/sources and continue writing your 25 -page literature review due week eight

• When the proposed thesis or project involves the study of human subjects and/or animals, such as a survey or interview, an Institutional Review Board review and approval of the proposed research is required. Please visit http://www.apus.edu/community-scholars/institutional-review-board/research.htm for more guidance—this process takes about a month to complete. Once your proposal is approved, you will work closely with your professor as you develop and address your topic.

Research Design is due at the end of Week 4. It describes how you will test the hypothesis or assess your research questions and carry out your analysis. This section describes the data to be used to test the hypothesis, how the student will operationalize and collect data on his/her variables, and the analytic methods that to be used, noting potential biases and limitations to the research approach. It should include:

· Identification and operationalization (measurement) of variables.

· A sampling plan (i.e., study population and sampling procedures, if appropriate).

· Justification of case studies used.

· Data collection/sources (secondary literature, archives, interviews, surveys, etc.).

· a summary of analysis procedures (pattern-matching, etc.); and

· Limitations of study and bias discussion.

Submission Instructions:

Please review the rubric and Capstone Manual for more specific guidelines on expectations; however, please note you are to provide comprehensive analysis of details, facts, and concepts in a logical sequence. You should demonstrate a higher- level of critical thinking necessary for 500-600 level work. You are to provide well-supported ideas and reflection with a variety of current and/or world views in the assignment. You are expected to present a genuine intellectual development of ideas throughout assignment. You should thoroughly understand and excel in explaining all major points. An original, unique, and/or imaginative approach to overall ideas, concepts, and findings is required. Overall format of assignment needs to include an appropriate introduction (or abstract), well- developed paragraphs, and conclusion. Finished assignment demonstrates your ability to plan and organize research in a logical sequence.

You may also rent or purchase the books on Amazon at a very reasonable price (specifically Prime members) and download it too.

· The APUS End of Program Assessment Manual for Graduate Studies (aka the EOP Manual) is located at http://apus.libguides.com/APUS_ePress/EOP_Manual.

· The EOP Manual presents the requirements for formatting your capstone paper or thesis. You will also need to consult your program’s style guide.

· Also consult the library’s Writing Help – Thesis/Capstone page and the Research Methods Information Guide for tips on formatting and structuring your thesis.

· Instructions+Accessing+the+APUS+Online+Library.docx: edge.apus.edu/access/content/group/science-and-technology-common/ITCC/ITCC698/Instructions+Accessing+the+APUS+Online+Library.docx

Grading Rubric

Major Areas to Review

Points Available

Hypothesis/Research Questions:

These are your research questions (what you plan to measure/examine). This section may also be in paragraph form. Research questions must be individual questions that each measures only one item (one question = one measurement). A couple of questions are expected in this section (typically 2 to 5). You MUST put these questions in traditional null hypotheses format.

If you are conducting a qualitative study, you may use your research questions.

For example: There is no statistical significant difference between someone who grows up in a poor neighborhood and someone from a middle or upper class neighborhood likely involvement in crime (quantitative design would use this example).

For example: If someone grows up in a poor neighborhood, they will be more likely to be involved with crime than someone in a middle or upper class neighborhood.

20

The Research Design Section:

•Identification and operationalization (measurement) of variables.

•A sampling plan (i.e., study population and sampling procedures, if appropriate).

•Justification of case studies used.

•Data collection/sources (secondary literature, archives, interviews, surveys, etc.).

•a summary of analysis procedures (pattern-matching, etc.); and

•Limitations of study and bias discussion.

In short, your research design should be the “step by step” directions that would enable a researcher to carry out and execute your research should you be unable to conduct the study yourself. (Think of this as directions from how to get to point A to point B. This detail is necessary as it demonstrates that you understand how to best do your research for your topic.)

Research Design Lecture by Lisa Campbell; http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-VoLWmE-vbI&feature=share&list=PL-Jb6g9lFLfXhj44dU40nfp-s1dEUmFVq

A Brief Comparison of Qualitative and Quantitative Research Methods: http://youtu.be/LYqDKEsy9gE

40

Turnitin will be used to assess originality report and supports attachments only—submit the paper as an attachment with less than 15% originality.

Searching for Literature Reviews: Before You Write, You Have to Find: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3Vw1-rljpuQ

Reviewing a Sample Literature Review (Part I):http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zswuIJ7-hB4

10

Reference:

· Incorporated all this sections references into one comprehensive list and should be in APA 6th Edition format.

· Also if you had a reference in your reference section, you must have a citation from that work somewhere in the body of your work. The citations and references must match up.

· You will be strictly held to the APA standards. Proper citations, in format and use as well as proper references must be implemented.

· Provided scholarly articles to support selected topic in the reference area.

10

Writing Format: APA

· What is Plagiarism: http://www.plagiarism.org/

· What is Plagiarism and How to Avoid It: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eIsLV9zOOe0

· Purdue Online Writing Lab: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/

· APA and MLA Citation Game Home Page: http://depts.washington.edu/trio/quest/citation/apa_mla_citation_game/

· APA Game (This will only function correctly on a mobile device or a modern web browser)

· Writing Help: http://apus.campusguides.com/writing/thesiscapstone

10

Grammatical, spelling or punctuation—the writing is grammatically correct, clear and concise. The response is well formulated and easy to read and understand. Correct terminology was used when needed.

10

Total

100

Supporting Materials

· https://edge.apus.edu/library/image/sakai/pdf.gif ITCC698_Thesis_Example_2015.pdf (1 MB)

· https://edge.apus.edu/library/image/sakai/word.gif ITCC698 and ISSC699 Thesis Checklist.docx (1 MB)

· https://edge.apus.edu/library/image/sakai/pdf.gif James Fitzer _ITCC698_Final_Creative_Project_Example.pdf (494 KB)

Submission

To submit your assignment, enter text in the Submission Text box below and/or attach one or more files and then click Submit. Save your work frequently.

Submission Text

 

MGMT 4544 THREE QUESTIONS

MGMT 4544 THREE QUESTIONS

MGMT 4544 THREE QUESTIONS

Subject: Business / Management
Question
1) A company used three different selection methods to select entry level business process analyst: 1. Structured interviews (validity coefficient 0.62) 2. Mental Ability Test (validity coefficient 0.54) 3. Work sample (validity coefficient 0.50). A total of 120 job applicants were given the test and they hired 25 applicants for the position. The intelligence test cost the company $22 per person, the work sample test costs the company $40 per person, and the structured interviews cost the company $55 per person. The standardized score (z-score) of the 25 applicants (selected for the position) on the intelligence test was 0.72, structured interviews 0.82, and for work sample test 0.63. The standard deviation of job performance expressed in dollars for the 25 applicants was $8,000. Given this data, calculate the utility of the three different selection methods and make recommendation to the company as to which one they should use for the future. Assume that 200 applicants applied for the job instead of 120 and the company hired 25 of the 200. What happens to the utility using these different methods? Show your calculations as an appendix (this does not count towards the 2 pages limit).

The formula for utility is: Ns*rxy*SDy*Zx-Nt(C) where

Ns = Number of applicants selected for the position

rxy = Validity coefficient of the selection method

SDy = Standard deviation of job performance expressed in dollar terms

Zx = Average test score of those selected expressed in standardized unit (z-scores)

Nt = Total number of applicants

C = Cost of assessing each applicant

2. In a company, one of the manufacturing plants is facing a dilemma. Some of the workers have been approached by AFL-CIO to organize the plant into a union. At present, about ten percent of the employees of the plant have shown interest in organizing. The Plant Manager needs to develop a strategy to counter to thwart the attempted unionization. Having no experience in unions, he has hired you as a consultant and asked you to provide him a list of things that he should not do during the unionization process. Provide him with a list of things he should refrain from doing so that he is not in violation of any laws.

3. A local oil and gas company in Houston hires the following categories of employees: 1. Petroleum Engineers at all levels (entry level, senior level, middle-management level, etc.). 2. Clerical employees (entry level only). 3. Senior management staff (both internal and external searches are done). The company employs about 3,000 employees in the Houston area. The company is interested in revising its compensation package to be externally competitive. They want to conduct their own market survey of wages and benefits paid by the competitors. Help them identify the relevant labor market, competitors, and the key areas they should focus on in designing the survey. Note that I do not expect an actual survey but the areas they should cover in terms of whom to survey, what to survey, and where to survey.

 

SWOT Analysis of Southwest Airlines

SWOT Analysis of Southwest Airlines

Question

Analyze the internal and external environments of the organization along the following terms:

Section I:

Write a brief company history, including a mission statement if available. (10 points)

Section II:

Thoroughly explain at least two major Strengths and two major Weaknesses (review chapter 8) of the organization.

For each strength, discuss why this strength can be considered a distinctive competence for the organization.

For each weakness, discuss what the organization could do to minimize that weakness. You should have a minimum of a full paragraph for each discussion of each strength and weakness.

Note that bullet points are not acceptable. (40 points)

Section III:

Thoroughly research and analyze two Opportunities and two Threats that this organization is facing. Each of these opportunities and threats must come from a force or forces occurring within a dimension or dimensions of the general environment within the organization's external environment (keep in mind an opportunity or threat can stem from more then one dimension within the general environment). Be sure to include in your discussion the relevant dimension of the general environment from which each of these forces is derived that are creating the specific opportunity or threat for the organization.

PLEASE NOTE: The dimensions of the general environment are outlined in chapter 3 and in week one's lecture.

Include in your analysis an explanation of how each of the opportunities and threats will likely impact the company and why. Include other companies/industries on which this may also have an effect. You should have a minimum of a full paragraph for each discussion of each opportunity and threat.

Note that bullet points are not acceptable. (50 points)

Section IV:

Briefly summarize your SWOT analysis

Discuss how the organization can capitalize on the opportunities that are occurring from the dimensions from within the general environment and how the organization can neutralize the threats that are occurring from the dimensions from within the general environment.

Note that bullets points are not acceptable. (10 points)

Paper Format:

Correctly produced APA parenthetical citations and Reference list. You must have a minimum of three external research sources in addition to the Griffin text. (5 points)

Spelling, grammar, organization (5 points)

Minimum of 1000 words

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