Dicussion Question 1

Dicussion Question 1

Question

Select and respond to one of the following. If you use additional resources, remember to list them at the end of the posting.

  • Perform a limited risk management activity on your personal computer. Conduct an asset identification (hardware, software, devices, etc. ), threat identification, vulnerability appraisal, risk assessment and risk mitigation. Under each category, describe the elements that pertain to your system. What major vulnerabilities did you find? How can you mitigate the risks?
  • Your author discusses some of the issues associated with rogue access points. Find a least one article that focuses on a defense against rogue access points, and provide a summary as well as a link to the article. In addition, consider that many phones can now act as wifi access points. Would the defense you've summarized work with a wifi rogue access point?
  • Complete the network / password scanning lab using Wireshark (attached here). See the details in the attached document. Post your findings to the forum.
,
Attachments
(14.31 KB)

A corporation is evaluating an extra dividend versus an open market share repurchase

A corporation is evaluating an extra dividend versus an open market share repurchase

Question A corporation is evaluating an extra dividend versus an open market share repurchase. in either case, $16,000 would be spent. current earnings are $4.5 per share. and the stock currently sells for $80 per share. there are 2000 shares outstanding. ignore taxes and other imperfections in answering the following two questions: 1, what is the stock price, EPS, P/E ratio and total equity value if the firm chooses to do a repurchase? 2,what is the stock price, EPS, P/E ratio and total equity value if the firm chooses to pay dividend?

accounting problems

accounting problems

Question The standard costs and actual costs for direct materials for the manufacture of 2,500 actual units of product are as follows:


Standard Costs
Direct materials 2,500 kilograms @ $8
Actual Costs
Direct materials 2,600 kilograms @ $8.75
The amount of the direct materials quantity variance is:


2. The standard costs and actual costs for direct materials for the manufacture of 2,500 actual units of product are as follows:
Standard Costs
Direct materials (per completed unit) 1.04 kilograms @$8.75
Actual Costs
Direct materials 2,500 kilograms @ $8
The amount of direct materials price variance is:

3. McCabe Manufacturing Co.'s static budget at 8,000 units of production includes $40,000 for direct labor and $4,000 for electric power. Total fixed costs are $23,000. At 9,000 units of production, a flexible budget would show:

4.O'Neill Co. has $296,000 in accounts receivable on January 1. Budgeted sales for January are $860,000. O'Neill expects to sell 20% of its merchandise for cash. Of the remaining 80% of sales on account, 75% are expected to be collected in the month of sale and the remainder the following month. The January cash collections from sales are:

5. If fixed costs are $561,000 and the unit contribution margin is $8.00, what is the break-even point in units if variable costs are decreased by $.50 a unit?

6. If fixed costs are $300,000 and the unit contribution margin is $5, what amount of units must be sold in order to realize an operating income of $50,000?

Social impact 80 questions

Social impact 80 questions

Question


Question 1 of 20

People's ethical beliefs come from:

A. legislative action and judicial decisions.

B. reading the company's profit and loss statements.

C. their religious background, family, and education.

D. the organization's code of ethics.

Question 2 of 20

People everywhere depend on ethical systems to tell them whether their actions are:


A. legal or illegal.

B. right or wrong.

C. financially attainable or not.

D. logical and in sound judgment.




Question 3 of 20
Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, corporations are required to:


A. have their CEO and CFO sign off on financial statements as accurate and fair.

B. have their audit committee comprised of only executives employed by the firm.

C. collect reimbursements from the U.S. government if financial restatements occur.

D. All of the above




Question 4 of 20
Cross-cultural contradictions arise due to:


A. the emergence of a developing country's economic power.

B. religious differences practiced by business executives.

C. differences between home and host countries' ethical standards.

D. All of the above




Question 5 of 20
As business becomes increasingly global:


A. it must turn to national laws for guidance.

B. ethical issues become issues of free trade.

C. a global code of conduct will emerge for businesses.

D. cross-cultural contradictions will increase.




Question 6 of 20
Which of the following was NOT a moral value acknowledged by Aristotle?


A. Temperance

B. Charity

C. Justice

D. Prudence




Question 7 of 20
According to Clarence Walton, the key to ethical standards in business is:


A. personal character.

B. highly paid executives.

C. clear governmental directives.

D. an ethics professor on the board of directors.




Question 8 of 20
Business managers need a set of ethical guidelines to help them:


A. understand the changing customs throughout the world.

B. justify the resolution which best helps themselves.

C. identify and analyze the nature of ethical problems.

D. None of the above


LINDA

Question 9 of 20
According to the utilitarian reasoning, if the benefits outweigh the costs, then the action is ethical because it produces:


A. the greatest good for the greatest number of people.

B. an equal amount of good for an equal number of people.

C. the greatest good for a select number of people.

D. an equal amount of good for the greatest number of people.



Question 10 of 20
A just or fair ethical decision occurs when:


A. the rights of all affected are considered.

B. the greatest good for those with power is achieved.

C. benefits and burdens are distributed equally.

D. All of the above




Question 11 of 20
Whistle-blowing occurs when:


A. a company president calls on employees in the organization to observe the firm's code of ethics.

B. an employee goes public with a complaint after failing to convince the company to correct an alleged abuse.

C. a consumer group calls for a boycott of a firm's product due to questionable advertisements.

D. an employee is found guilty of criminal wrongdoing by a government agency.




Question 12 of 20
The core components upon which a company's ethical performance depends include:


A. the values and virtues of the managers.

B. the personal character of the managers and employees.

C. the traditions, attitudes, and business practices built into a company's culture.

D. All of the above



Question 13 of 20
Which of the following is NOT one of the five core values developed by the Holt Company?


A. Efficiency

B. Dynamic

C. Success

D. Ethics





Question 14 of 20
If a manager approaches ethics with benevolence in mind, he or she would stress what?


A. Friendly relations with an employee

B. Company rules and procedures

C. Laws and professional codes

D. Economic efficiency




Question 15 of 20
The Kanebo Limited scandal is an example of a lapse in:


A. information technology ethics.

B. marketing ethics.

C. finance ethics.

D. accounting ethics.




Question 16 of 20
A giant step is taken toward improving ethical performance throughout the company when:


A. the firm hires a university ethics professor to lecture employees on moral philosophy.

B. the Justice Department launches an investigation of the firm's pricing practices.

C. senior-level managers signal to employees that they believe ethics is a high priority.

D. a consumer hot line is created and staffed 24 hours a day.




Question 17 of 20
Which of the following statements is true?


A. In Japan, most codes were found to be a mixture of legal compliance and statements of mission.

B. The rationale underlying corporate codes of ethics are the same from country to country.

C. The values and mission codes are least popular with European and Canadian companies.

D. Codes of ethics in Latin America primarily focus on guidelines for accepting or refusing gifts.


LINDA


Question 18 of 20
The Institute for Corporate Ethics was created to:


A. guide managers when an ethical dilemma arises.

B. provide assistance for developing ethics policies for organizations.

C. develop and conduct training programs for senior managers.

D. oversee ethics audits.




Question 19 of 20
The critical component in installing an effective ethics program is:


A. to allow all employees the freedom to act as they wish.

B. in hiring an expensive ethics consultant.

C. the integration of various ethics safeguards into a comprehensive program.

D. maintaining the position as the industry sales leader.




Question 20 of 20
One of the most widespread and potentially powerful efforts to combat bribery was initiated by:


A. the Global Forum on Fighting Corruption.

B. the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development.

C. International Labour Organization.

D. the U.S. Foreign Corrupt Policy Act.

Question 1 of 20

In which year was the 1st World Summit on Sustainable Development held?

A. 1982

B. 1985

C. 1990

D. 1992


Question 2 of 20

Depletion of the ozone layer, destruction of the rain forests, and species extinctions have an impact on:

A. all of society.

B. a particular region.

C. a particular nation.

D. none of society.


Question 3 of 20

Sustainable development:

A. meets the needs of the present while compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

B. gives precedence to environmental over economic considerations.

C. balances economic and environmental considerations.

D. sacrifices less important immediate needs in order to fulfill important future needs.


Question 4 of 20

An attempt to apply the concept of sustainable development has been made by an initiative called The Natural Step, which was created in which country?

A. Brazil

B. Denmark

C. Sweden

D. Switzerland


Question 5 of 20

Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable resource?

A. Coal

B. Fresh water

C. Timber

D. Fish


Question 6 of 20

Critics argue that offset factors to the "limits to growth hypothesis" include:

A. depletion of nonrenewable resources will force people to find substitutes.

B. markets will be subjected to greater governmental control.

C. more advanced computer simulation models will better predict the future.

D. technological development will slow in resource-scarce nations.


Question 7 of 20

A thin layer of gas that protects the earth from excessive ultraviolet radiation from the sun is:

A. ozone.

B. carbon dioxide.

C. methane.

D. oxygen.


Question 8 of 20

The goal of the World Business Council for Sustainable Development is to encourage:

A. high standards of environmental management and to promote closer cooperation among businesses, governments, and other organizations.

B. world political and business leaders to conserve the earth's biological resources, particularly in species-rich tropical forests.

C. poorer countries to develop their economies in an environmentally sustainable way.

D. cutting CFC production and use by 50 percent by 2010.


Question 9 of 20

Which of the following is an example of industrial ecology in practice?

A. Developing a paper recycling program in business offices

B. Using wastes from one process as raw materials for another process

C. Manufacturing recyclable containers for products

D. All of the above


Question 10 of 20

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was created:

A. to monitor and regulate nuclear activity.

B. in 1970 to coordinate most of the government's efforts to protect the environment.

C. to monitor and regulate occupational health and safety standards.

D. All of the above


Question 11 of 20

Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to acid rain?

A. A primary source of acid rain is coal-fired utilities.

B. Acid rain occurs when carbon dioxide combines with water vapor in the atmosphere.

C. Acid rain is worse in some regions of the United States than others.

D. Acid rain degrades buildings.


Question 12 of 20

Which country has made the greatest progress in reducing its solid waste stream?

A. United Kingdom

B. Germany

C. Japan

D. United States


Question 13 of 20

Which of the following statements is NOT true about environmental standards?

A. Regulatory agencies can establish standard allowable levels of pollutants.

B. The government has the power to command business firms to comply with certain standards.

C. The government rarely interferes in a business's choice of pollution technology.

D. They are the most widely used methods of regulation.


Question 14 of 20

Which of the following is NOT a cost of environmental regulation?

A. Unemployment

B. Reduced capital investment

C. Corporate restructuring

D. Lowered productivity


Question 15 of 20

Which of the following is indicative of a firm in the pollution prevention stage of the corporate environmental responsibility model?

A. Realizing that it would be less efficient and more expensive to prevent pollution before it is created

B. Focusing on all environmental impacts of the product life-cycle

C. Minimizing or eliminating waste before it is created

D. Incurring losses due to environmental costs


Question 16 of 20

Which of the following is the most advanced stage of corporate environmental responsibility?

A. Pollution prevention stage

B. Clean technology stage

C. Product stewardship stage

D. Green management stage


Question 17 of 20

Continuing activities indefinitely, without altering the carrying capacity of the earth's ecosystem, is a characteristic of:

A. an ecologically sustainable organization.

B. concerned citizens.

C. a code of environmental conduct.

D. environmental regulation.


Question 18 of 20

Some researchers believe that business firms moving towards ecological sustainability results in:

A. competitive advantages.

B. decreased worker productivity.

C. more government regulation.

D. less money for shareholders.


Question 19 of 20

Companies that reduce pollution and hazardous waste, reuse or recycle materials, and operate with greater energy efficiency achieve a competitive advantage due to:

A. technological innovation.

B. product differentiation.

C. green marketing.

D. cost savings.


Question 20 of 20

When companies develop a reputation for environmental excellence, and they produce and deliver products and services designed to attract environmentally aware customers, this is called:

A. technological innovation.

B. strategic planning.

C. green marketing.

D. cost savings.

Question 1 of 20


Nanotechnology is the:



A. ability to create manmade structures just a few billionths of a meter in size.



B. more advanced form of e-commerce.



C. technological innovation developed by an entrepreneurial firm.



D. All of the above




Social impact 80 questions

Question 2 of 20


By the mid-2000s, nanotech materials found their way into all of the following consumer products EXCEPT:


Social impact 80 questions

A. wrinkle-resistant clothing.


Social impact 80 questions

B. sunscreen.


Social impact 80 questions

C. tennis balls.


Social impact 80 questions

D. tennis rackets.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 3 of 20


Telecommunications has:


Social impact 80 questions

A. diminished the human touch in our communications.


Social impact 80 questions

B. enhanced the human dimensions in our communications.


Social impact 80 questions

C. reduced international communications.


Social impact 80 questions

D. limited our communication efforts in outer space.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 4 of 20


Which of the following is NOT true about the service phase of technology?


Social impact 80 questions

A. It was the fourth phase in the development of technology.


Social impact 80 questions

B. It emphasized providing services.


Social impact 80 questions

C. It required manual and intellectual skills.


Social impact 80 questions

D. It dominated from 1900 to 1960.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 5 of 20


The phase of technology that focuses on building material goods and manual labor is:


Social impact 80 questions

A. agrarian.


Social impact 80 questions

B. service.


Social impact 80 questions

C. industrial.


Social impact 80 questions

D. information.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 6 of 20


Cyberspace, an electronic network of linked systems, is where:


Social impact 80 questions

A. old, deleted files are sent until the recycle bin is emptied.


Social impact 80 questions

B. business-to-business commerce is conducted.


Social impact 80 questions

C. government strategic plans are stored, safe from computer hackers.


Social impact 80 questions

D. information is stored, ideas are described, and communication takes place.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 7 of 20


The buying and selling of goods and services electronically is called:



A. m-commerce.



B. e-commerce.



C. telecommunications.



D. software piracy.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 8 of 20


Technology superpowers spawned the system of:


Social impact 80 questions

A. platform-to-platform commerce.


Social impact 80 questions

B. e-commerce.


Social impact 80 questions

C. Internet e-mail exchange.


Social impact 80 questions

D. All of the above




Social impact 80 questions

Question 9 of 20


Brazil provided an interesting test case for technological development over the question of:


Social impact 80 questions

A. regulating mobile business.


Social impact 80 questions

B. creating an Internet sales tax.


Social impact 80 questions

C. free or fee Internet access.


Social impact 80 questions

D. government-subsidized computer purchases.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 10 of 20


Laughpractice.blogspot.com is an example of:


Social impact 80 questions

A. a blog.


Social impact 80 questions

B. a vlog.


Social impact 80 questions

C. a RSS.


Social impact 80 questions

D. None of the above




Social impact 80 questions

Question 11 of 20


The digital divide describes the gap between those:


Social impact 80 questions

A. individuals who have technology and those who do not.


Social impact 80 questions

B. businesses who use e-business and those who do not.


Social impact 80 questions

C. hospitals that use online information and those who do not.


Social impact 80 questions

D. individuals who have broadband technology and those who do not.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 12 of 20


The digital divide was first found in the United States:


Social impact 80 questions

A. and is restricted to the U.S.


Social impact 80 questions

B. but experts fear it might spread to Canada.


Social impact 80 questions

C. but has spread globally.


Social impact 80 questions

D. but has been eradicated by educational programs.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 13 of 20


Which of the following countries is one of the safest in the world in the category of violent crime, but has seen a significant increase in cyber-crime?


Social impact 80 questions

A. China


Social impact 80 questions

B. The United States


Social impact 80 questions

C. Japan


Social impact 80 questions

D. Great Britain




Social impact 80 questions

Question 14 of 20


When a German utility firm was ordered by the German government to turn over all its employees' records so they could be searched for terrorists linked to the September 11, 2001 attacks in the U.S., the firm:


Social impact 80 questions

A. refused, although sympathetic to the U.S. investigation.


Social impact 80 questions

B. resisted, but lost its fight due to a World Court ruling.


Social impact 80 questions

C. complied with the request, adhering to the U.S. Patriot Act.


Social impact 80 questions

D. provided false documents to protect their employees' privacy.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 15 of 20


IT-ISAC enables the sharing of sensitive information about cyberattacks among:


Social impact 80 questions

A. NATO governments.


Social impact 80 questions

B. technology firms.


Social impact 80 questions

C. Southeast Asian businesses.


Social impact 80 questions

D. Canadian and American computer hackers.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 16 of 20


Digital certificates are:


Social impact 80 questions

A. replacing birth certificates, preventing decay or falsification.


Social impact 80 questions

B. old-fashioned stock certificates now stored digitally by stockbrokers.


Social impact 80 questions

C. encrypted computer files, serving as identification cards and signatures online.


Social impact 80 questions

D. All of the above




Social impact 80 questions

Question 17 of 20


The Child Online Protection Act, passed in 1998:


Social impact 80 questions

A. specifically applies to children under 13 years of age.


Social impact 80 questions

B. has settled the debate over protecting children from adult-oriented Web sites.


Social impact 80 questions

C. has been a model for many European countries' legislation.


Social impact 80 questions

D. was vetoed by President Bush as too difficult and too costly to enforce.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 18 of 20


The practice of downloading copyrighted songs was challenged because it:


Social impact 80 questions

A. created congestion and overloaded demands on the servers.


Social impact 80 questions

B. denied legitimate compensation to the recording artists.


Social impact 80 questions

C. favored major recording companies and selective artists over others.


Social impact 80 questions

D. resulted in bankruptcy for retail music outlets across the country.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 19 of 20


In 2003, the United Nations General Assembly considered three proposals aimed at human cloning. The proposal strongly pushed by the United States:


Social impact 80 questions

A. called for a ban of reproductive cloning.


Social impact 80 questions

B. called for the fate of therapeutic cloning to be determined by individual nations.


Social impact 80 questions

C. called for a ban of all types of cloning.


Social impact 80 questions

D. argued that the issue should be deferred for a couple of years.




Social impact 80 questions

Question 20 of 20


The safety of genetically modified foods:


Social impact 80 questions

A. was challenged most noticeably in Europe but has spread to other countries.


Social impact 80 questions

B. has been well-documented since its beginning.


Social impact 80 questions

C. is now in the hands of governments, ensuring its safety for human consumption.


Social impact 80 questions

D. has never been questioned in the United States.


Question 1 of 20


Which of the following statements is NOT true about stockholders?



A. They are the legal owners of business corporations.



B. They own equal shares of company assets.



C. They are the part owners of the company.



D. Managers pay close attention to their needs and interests.





Question 2 of 20


Institutional investors are sometimes referred to as:



A. Main Street investors.



B. Wall Street investors.



C. inside investors.



D. outside investors.





Question 3 of 20


In the mid- to late-1990s the stock market was a:



A. bull market.



B. market in which share prices fell overall.



C. bear market.



D. None of the above





Question 4 of 20


Corporate governance involves the exercise of control over a company's:



A. finance and accounting departments.



B. entire operations.



C. manufacturing facilities.



D. marketing and human resources departments.





Question 5 of 20


The directors of a company are a central factor in corporate governance because they:



A. exercise formal legal authority over company policy.



B. have the highest stake in the performance of the company.



C. have a moral responsibility to fulfill the needs of both the company's employees and customers.



D. inherited the business from their predecessors.





Question 6 of 20


What was a major contributor to the collapse of Enron in 2001?



A. The company's top executives made bad investments.



B. Several failed merger attempts with other firms.



C. Lax oversight by the company's audit committee.



D. The bear market of the early 2000s.





Question 7 of 20


How are directors (members of corporate boards) selected?



A. Shareholders elect the directors from a list of candidates.



B. The company's CEO appoints the directors.



C. The nominating committee elects the directors.



D. Shareholders with the greatest proportional ownership in the company become directors.





Question 8 of 20


The "agency problem" arises when:



A. owners manage their company on their own behalf.



B. there is no separation of ownership and control in a company.



C. managers act in their own interest, rather than in the interest of shareholders.



D. shareholders act in their own interest, rather than in the interest of the board.





Question 9 of 20


A reason for institutions becoming more assertive in promoting the interests of their member investors is:



A. it is difficult for institutions to sell their holdings.



B. their members want them to.



C. institutions have greater flexibility in selling stocks.



D. institutions have nominated members on the finance committee of the board of directors.





Question 10 of 20


The mission of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is to:



A. protect shareholders' rights by making sure that stock markets are run fairly.



B. protect companies from hostile takeovers.



C. ensure that institutional investors do not take control of company management.



D. ensure that the federal treasury receives its share of the revenues from stock trading.





Question 11 of 20


The Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 outlaws:



A. any manipulative or deceptive device used to trade stocks.



B. compensating company executives with stock options.



C. trading in stocks by institutions.



D. buying stock in a company for which you work.





Question 12 of 20


Which organization brings together 300 nonprofit groups to espouse the consumer viewpoint?



A. Consumers Union



B. Consumer Federation of America



C. National Consumer League



D. Public Citizen





Question 13 of 20


A goal of the consumer movement is to make consumer power:



A. exceed the rights and powers of firms that sell goods and services.



B. exceed the rights and powers of the Food and Drug Administration.



C. an effective counterbalance to the rights and powers of firms that sell goods and services.



D. an effective counterbalance to the rights and powers of the Food and Drug Administration.





Question 14 of 20


Which of the following is a core right of consumers?



A. The right to safety



B. The right to be represented



C. The right to purchase



D. The right to return goods.





Question 15 of 20


Manufacturers making false or misleading claims about a competitor's product is:



A. illegal but ethical.



B. illegal and unethical.



C. legal but unethical.



D. legal and unethical.





Question 16 of 20


Online shoppers have always been concerned that:



A. they receive online ads for products similar to the ones they bought earlier on the Web.



B. their favorite Web sites provide a large variety of products and services.



C. the government might become overly involved in protecting consumer privacy.



D. information they reveal in the course of a sales transaction might be misused.





Question 17 of 20


Which organization advocates the adoption, by businesses, of voluntary policies for protecting the privacy of individuals' information disclosed during electronic transactions?



A. Online Privacy Alliance



B. Web Site Alliance



C. Open Profiling Standard



D. Federal Trade Commission





Question 18 of 20


The burden of responsibility for product performance has shifted to the producer, under the legal doctrine of:



A. rational liability.



B. product liability.



C. consumer liability.



D. supplier liability.





Question 19 of 20


Under proposals to establish uniform federal standards for determining liability:



A. plaintiffs would be discouraged from proceeding to trial.



B. companies would not have to go through repeated trials on the same charges in different states.



C. judges rather than juries would determine the original amount of punitive damages.



D. consumers would have to prove that a manufacturer knew or should have known that a product design was defective.





Question 20 of 20


In some cases, businesses have banded together to agree on how they will treat their customers. This is called:



A. the code of regulation.



B. the consumer affairs doctrine.



C. voluntary industry codes of conduct.



D. industry action standards.


general business data bank general business data bank

general business data bank general business data bank

Question

Scenario - SendToMe.com

SendToMe.com is a large, diversified distributing company. The company is organized into three divisions: personal products, diagnostic equipment, and office equipment. The personal products division consists primarily of toiletry products for the individual consumer. The products include shampoos, conditioners, bath soaps, and mouthwash. All of the products are sold under store brand labels; typically, the company signs an agreement with a discount store, and the products are sold under the store's label. Sales of this division (and in the industry) have been relatively stable for the past ten years, and the division enjoys a dominant market share. Due to increased efficiencies in manufacturing and distribution, profits from the division have risen.

The diagnostic equipment division specializes in developing and marketing medical equipment, specifically equipment used in blood analysis. National sales for medical diagnostic equipment have been growing over 20 percent per year for the last five years. However, sales for this division are stagnant and there has been some discussion among senior management about divesting this division.

The office equipment division manufactures a high quality line of office furniture. The products are distributed through better office equipment stores and interior design firms. Sales in this division have more than doubled over the past five years.

1. Refer to the scenario above. To assess the internal and external environmental forces that need to be addressed so the company can remain profitable, SendToMe.com needs to conduct a:

a. strategic intervention

b. SWOT analysis

c. value analysis

d. tactical implementation

e. business correlation study

2. Refer to the scenario above. Threats to the diagnostic equipment division's problems may lie in:

a. new entrants into the field

b. the development of nanotechnology

c .multiple core competencies

d. growth in the hospital industry

e. all of these

3. Refer to the scenario above. The business-level strategy used by the office equipment division would be called:

a. cost leadership

b. differentiation

c. focus

d. portfolio

e. core competence

4. Refer to the scenario above. The business-level strategy used by the personal products division would be called:

a. cost leadership

b. differentiation

c. focus

d. core competence

e. portfolio

COMPLETION

1. A(n) ____________________ is a desired future state that the organization attempts to realize.

2. A(n) ____________________ is a blueprint for goal achievement and specifies the necessary resource allocations, schedules, tasks, and other actions.

3. The act of determining the organization's goals and the means for achieving them is referred to as ____________________.

4. ____________________ and plans are the responsibilities of middle managers.

5. Operational plans that focus on specific tasks and processes that help to meet tactical and strategic goals are developed by ____________________ managers and supervisors.

Marketing_5Dec_3rd

Marketing_5Dec_3rd

Question 61)To be successful at marketing, companies must effectively turn marketing planning into
________.
A) marketing analysis
B) marketing implementation C) marketing control
D) marketing audits
E) marketing budgeting
62)Under the ________ organizational format of marketing departments, different marketing
activities are headed by a specialist such as a sales manager, advertising manager, marketing
research manager, or customer-service manager.
A) geographic
B) product management C) market management D) customer-centered E) functional
63)Modern marketing departments are arranged in all of the following ways, EXCEPT which
one?
A) functional organization
B) market management organization C) product management organization D) geographic
organization
E) strategic management organization
64)The ________ organizational format was first used by Procter and Gamble in 1929.
A)functional
B)market management
C)geographic
D)product management
E)customer management
65) The ________ organizational system's main advantage is that the company is organized
around the needs of specific market segments.
A)product management
B)market management
C)geographic management
D)vertical management
E)functional management
66)An increasingly large number of firms are changing their organizational focus from
________ to ________.
A) product management; functional management B) product management; geographic
management
C) brand management; customer relationship management D) geographic management;
functional management
E) global management; regional management
67)Evaluating the results of marketing strategies and plans and taking corrective action to ensure
that objectives are attained is called ________.
A) marketing control B) strategic control C) operating control
D) developmental control E) efficiency
68)The marketing control process entails the following steps in order: setting goals, ________,
evaluating performance, and ________.
A) evaluating goals; measuring performance B) achieving goals; measuring performance
C) taking corrective action; measuring performance D) measuring performance; taking corrective
action E) taking corrective action; following up
69)Which of the following is NOT a step in the marketing control process?
A)setting goals
B)measuring performance
C)taking corrective action
D)defining the mission
E)evaluating the causes of gaps between expected and actual performance
70)Ensuring that the company achieves the sales, profits, and other goals set out in its annual
marketing plan is the purpose of ________.
A) marketing control B) operating control C) strategic control D) anticipatory control E) a
marketing audit
71)________ involves looking at whether a company's basic strategies are well matched to its
opportunities.
A) Operating control
B) Market management organization C) Marketing control
D) Strategic control E) Distribution
72)Which of the following is a tool for monitoring strategic marketing performance?
A)a marketing plan
B)a marketing dashboard
C)a customer management organization
D)a product differentiation
E)a value delivery network
73) Which of the following measures the profits generated by investments in marketing
activities?
A)SWOT analysis
B)marketing audits
C)executive summaries
D)marketing ROI
E)budgets
.
74)Which of the following would NOT be a useful tool for determining marketing ROI? A) a
marketing dashboard
B) brand awareness C) market share D) SWOT analysis
E) customer lifetime value
75)Which of the following is NOT a customer-centered measure of marketing impact? A)
customer management
B) customer acquisition C) customer equity
D) customer retention
E) customer lifetime value
76)ABC Fortunes has just developed a formal statement of its purpose. This firm has put
together a mission statement.
77)Mission statements should be realistic and general in nature.
78) Mission statements should both fit the market environment and be motivating.
79)At America Online, "we create customer connectivity, anytime, anywhere," is a product-
oriented mission.
80)"At Nike, we sell shoes" is a market-oriented business definition.
81)A firm's mission statement should be the basis for both its business and marketing objectives.:
82)The primary activity in strategic planning is goal setting.
83)When designing business portfolios, most companies are well advised to add a broad range of
products and businesses to their organization.
84)In the BCG matrix, "dogs" by definition are businesses and products that do not generate
enough cash to maintain themselves.
85)More and more companies involve only upper-level management teams in strategic planning.
86)Though companies need to grow to compete effectively and satisfy their stakeholders, growth
itself should not be a company's objective.
87)The growth strategy of diversification involves offering modified or new products to current
markets.
88)A company should consider downsizing when products of an SBU no longer fit the
company's overall strategy.
89)The marketing department alone cannot produce superior value for customers.
90)A company's value chain is only as strong as its strongest link, or most effective department.

Econ – Monopoly and Deadweight

Econ – Monopoly and Deadweight

Question

Suppose that a firm has a monopoly on a good with

the following demand schedule:

Quantity Price

0 $10

1 $9

2 $8

3 $7

4 $6

5 $5

6 $4

7 $3

8 $2

9 $1

10 $0

a. What price and quantity will the monopolist produce

at if the marginal cost is a constant $4?

b. Calculate the deadweight loss from having

the monopolist produce, rather than a perfect

competitor.

Part A (1000 words) (50 marks) Watts and Zimmerman’s

Part A (1000 words) (50 marks) Watts and Zimmerman’s

Question


Part A (1000 words) (50 marks) Watts and Zimmerman’s ‘The Demand and Supply of Accounting Theories: The Market for Excuses’ suggested the ‘normative’ project of accounting academics and other social critics of corporate accounting practice to be invalid;


Part A (50marks)

Assessment criteria

1000 words max.

Excellent

(HD)

Very Good

(D)

Good

(C)

Satisfactory

(P)

Unsatisfactory

(F)

1. Introduction (5)

2. Body/Discussion (15)

Criticalevaluation of topic

3. Conclusion (5)

4. Examples (5)

6. Referencing, citations (5)

7. Evidence of reading, quality and quantity (10)

8. English expression, coherence, grammar and spelling. Logical flow of ideas (5)

Part B (50marks)

Assessment criteria

1000 words max.

Excellent

(HD)

Very Good

(D)

Good

(C)

Satisfactory

(P)

Unsatisfactory

(F)

1. Introduction (5)

2. Body/Discussion (15)

Criticalevaluation of topic

3. Conclusion (5)

4. Examples (5)

6. Referencing, citations (5)

7. Evidence of reading, quality and quantity (10)

8. English expression, coherence, grammar and spelling. Logical flow of ideas (5)

Effectiveness of communication - ie readability, legibility, grammar, spelling, neatness, completeness and presentation will be a minimum threshold requirement for all written work submitted for assessment. Work that is illegible or incomprehensible and does not meet the minimum requirement will be awarded a fail grade.

3. Demonstrated understanding - This will be evidenced by the student's ability to be dialectical in the discussion of contentious issues. Few, if any, accounting concepts are scientific facts and stereotype answers will demonstrate poor understanding on the part of the student.

4. Evidence of research - This will be evidenced by the references made to the statutes, accounting standards, books, journal articles and inclusion of a bibliography.

,
Attachments
(35.98 KB)

marketing!!!!!!!!!

marketing!!!!!!!!!

Question

You work for an international construction company that has been contracted to build the tallest skyscraper in the world in Rio Janeiro.


The financing is a company from Dubai, the materials are coming from China, the engineering and technology are coming from Germany and the labor will be hired locally with management from the United States. You invite all of the players to the headquarters in the United States for a big meeting to explain the project and get to know one another. The people seem to be staying with their own groups and not minging. 1.) What is the culture phenomenon here? 2.) What do you know about these cultures specifically their economic, political, educational and social systems that could help you in getting them together. 3.) How do you explain the lack of intercultural communication? 4.) What are some of the contrasting cultural values of these countries?

Part II:You are concered about some of the language issues as you start the meeting particularly the fact that the United States is a low context country and some of the countries present are high context countries, you only speak English and you don't have an interpreter present. 1.) How will this affect the presentation? 2.) What are some of the issues you should be concerned about regarding verbal and nonverbal language for this group? 3.) What strategy would you used to begin to have everyone develop a relationship with each other that will help ease further negotiations, development and implementation?

Assignment 7 – Suppose the current administration

Assignment 7 – Suppose the current administration

Assignment 7 – Suppose the current administration

Subject: Economics / General Economics
Question
Assignment 7; Chapter 13 Questions 2, 4, 5, 9

2. Suppose the current administration decides to decrease government expenditures as a means of
cutting the existing government budget deficit. a) According to the aggregate demand and supply
analysis, what will be the effect of such a measure in the short run? Describe changes in the inflation
rate and output level. b) What will be the effect on the real interest rate, inflation rate, and output level
if the Federal Reserve decides to stabilize the inflation rate?

4. The following table shows the inflation rate and output level for four consecutive periods in a given
economy. In period 1, the economy is at its long- run equilibrium ( i. e., the inflation rate equals its
target and output equals potential output). In period 2, there is a temporary supply shock ( e. g., an
increase in energy prices).
Period
1
2
3
4 Inflation rate (%)
2.5
4.5
2.5
2.5 Output ($ trillions)
8
7
6
8

a) Based on the table, determine which type of response was implemented by policy makers ( e. g., no
response versus stabilizing inflation or economic activity).
b) Show your argument using a graph (draw the MP curve and the AD/ AS diagram consistent with the
table data).

5. Suppose one could measure the welfare gains derived from eliminating output (and unemployment)
fluctuations in the economy. Assuming these gains are relatively small for the average individual, how
do you think this conclusion would affect the activist/ non activist debate?

9. The Taylor rule suggests that the policy rate target should be increased when the output gap is
positive. Do you think the Taylor rule encourages or discourages demand-pull inflation? Which might be
a limitation of the Taylor rule with respect to demand- pull inflation?

11. Suppose that f is determined by two factors: financial panic and asset purchases. a) Using an MP
curve and an AS- AD graph, show how a sufficiently large financial panic can pull the economy below the
zero lower bound and into a destabilizing deflationary spiral. b) Using an MP curve and an AS- AD graph,
show how a sufficient amount of asset purchases can reverse the effects of the financial panic depicted
in part (a). Not From the book: In season three of the “House of Cards” president Fran Underwood is pushing to pass a bill called
“AmericaWorks”. The goal of AmericaWorks is to create jobs for all Americans. The congress is against it
and so he tries to fund the program by getting money from funds allocated to other programs
(emergency funds for extreme weather). How do you think the program affect the level of economic
activity and inflation in the long run and short run? (You can make up your own assumptions or make
proposal if needed.)