Discuss the development and characteristics of Abstract Expressionism Discuss the development and characteristics of Abstract Expressionism Question Directions: Be sure to make an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be a minimum of one (1) single-spaced page to a maximum of two (2) pages in length; refer to the "Assignment Format" page for specific format requirements.1. Discuss the development and characteristics of Abstract Expressionism; be sure to include Gorky, Pollock, and de Kooning in your discussion, using examples of their work as discussed in the text.2. Discuss the development and characteristics of Pop Art; include Hamilton, Johns, Rauschenburg, and Warhol in your discussion
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general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. Planning, implementation, and control are basic jobs of all managers. True False 2. Controlling the marketing plan is the first step of the marketing management process. True False 3. The three basic jobs in the marketing management process are planning, implementation, and control. True False 4. The marketing management process consists of (1) planning marketing activities, (2) directing the implementation of the plans, and (3) controlling these plans. True False 5. Strategic planning is a top management job that includes planning only for marketing. True False 6. Strategic planning is the managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between an organization's resources and its market opportunities. True False 7. Strategic (management) planning is a managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of the production department and its product opportunities. True False 8. Finding attractive opportunities and developing profitable marketing strategies are the tasks included in the marketing manager's marketing strategy planning job. True False 9. Marketing strategy planning is the process of deciding how best to sell the products the firm produces. True False 10. A marketing strategy specifies a target market and a related marketing mix. True False 11. A marketing strategy is composed of two interrelated parts--a target market and a marketing mix. True False 12. A marketing strategy is composed of two interrelated parts--planning and implementation. True False 13. The two parts of a marketing strategy are an attractive opportunity and a target market. True False 14. A target market consists of a group of consumers who are usually quite different. True False 15. A marketing mix consists of the uncontrollable variables which a company puts together to satisfy a target market. True False 16. Target marketing aims a marketing mix at some specific target customers. True False BASIC MARKETING A Marketing Strategy Planning Approach Perreault Jr 19th Edition Test Bank BASIC MARKETING A Marketing Strategy Planning Approach Perreault Jr 19th Edition Test Bank 17. Mass marketing means focusing on some specific customers, as opposed to assuming that everyone is the same and will want whatever the firm offers. True False 18. The mass marketing approach is more production-oriented than marketing-oriented. True False 19. The terms mass marketing and mass marketers mean the same thing. True False 20. "Mass marketers" like Target usually try to aim at clearly defined target markets. True False 21. The problem with target marketing is that it limits the firm to small market segments. True False 22. Potential customers are all alike. True False 23. The four "Ps" are: Product, Promotion, Price, and Personnel. True False 24. The "four Ps" of the marketing mix are Product, Position, Promotion, and Price. True False 25. The "four Ps" of the marketing mix are People, Products, Price, and Promotion. True False
Case Study: The Big Data Challenges Paper Case Study: The Big Data Challenges Paper Question The Big Data ChallengesI need help with the following assignment:Bigis a term used to describe the voluminous amount of structured and semi-structured data generated by companies. The term is used when referring to petabytes (PB), exabytes (EB), and zettabytes (ZB) of data. Companies face challenges when it comes to capturing, storing, and analyzing Big Data. The Volvo Car Corporation faced this problem because of the massive amount of data it was streaming from its vehicles. Download and study the Volvo Car Corporation case study titled, "Converting data into business value at Volvo", located here. Write a two to four (2-4) page paper in which you:Assignment (referring to attached case study):Judge how Volvo Car Corporation integrated the cloud infrastructure into its networks.Explain how Volvo Car Corporation transforms data into knowledge.Identify the real-timeimplemented and evaluate the impact of these implementations.Argue how the Big Data strategy gives Volvo Car Corporation a competitive advantage.Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. , Attachments (51.7 KB) (1118.05 KB)
Finance!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! assignment Finance!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! assignment Question 1. Liquidity ratios. Edison, Stagg, and Thornton have the following financial information at the close of business on July 10: Edison Stagg ThorntonCash $6,000 $5,000 $4,000Short-term investments 3,000 2,500 2,000Accounts receivable 2,000 2,500 3,000Inventory 1,000 2,500 4,000Prepaid expenses 800 800 800Accounts payable 200 200 200Notes payable: short-term 3,100 3,100 3,100Accrued payables 300 300 300Long-term liabilities 3,800 3,800 3,800a. Compute the current and quick ratios for each of the three companies. (Round calculations to two decimal places.) Which firm is the most liquid? Why?2. Computation and evaluation of activity ratios. The following data relate to Alaska Products, Inc: 20X5 20X4Net credit sales $832,000 $760,000 Cost of goods sold 530,000 400,000 Cash, Dec. 31 125,000 110,000 Average Accounts receivable 205,000 156,000 Average Inventory 70,000 50,000 Accounts payable, Dec. 31 115,000 108,000 Instructionsa. Compute the accounts receivable and inventory turnover ratios for 20X5. Alaska rounds all calculations to two decimal places. 3. Profitability ratios, trading on the equity. Digital Relay has both preferred and common stock outstanding. The com¬pany reported the following information for 20X7: Net sales $1,750,000 Interest expense 120,000Income tax expense 80,000Preferred dividends 25,000Net income 130,000Average assets 1,200,000Average common stockholders' equity 500,000 a. Compute the profit margin on sales ratio, the return on equity and the return on assets, rounding calculations to two decimal places.b. Does the firm have positive or negative financial leverage? Briefly ex¬plain.4. Horizontal analysis. Mary Lynn Corporation has been operating for several years. Selected data from the 20X1 and 20X2 financial statements follow. 20X2 20X1Current Assets $86,000 $80,000 Property, Plant, and Equipment (net) 99,000 90,000Intangibles 25,000 50,000Current Liabilities 40,800 48,000Long-Term Liabilities 153,000 160,000Stockholders’ Equity 16,200 12,000Net Sales 500,000 500,000Cost of Goods Sold 322,500 350,000Operating Expenses 93,500 85,000 a. Prepare a horizontal analysis for 20X1 and 20X2. Briefly comment on the results of your work. 5.Vertical analysis. Mary Lynn Corporation has been operating for several years. Selected data from the 20X1 and 20X2 financial statements follow. 20X2 20X1Current Assets $86,000 $80,000 Property, Plant, and Equipment (net) 99,000 80,000 Intangibles 25,000 50,000 Current Liabilities 40,800 48,000 Long-Term Liabilities 153,000 150,000 Stockholders’ Equity 16,200 12,000 Net Sales 500,000 500,000 Cost of Goods Sold 322,500 350,000 Operating Expenses 93,500 85,000 a. Prepare a vertical analysis for 20X1 and 20X2. Briefly comment on the results of your work. 6. Ratio computation. The financial statements of the Lone Pine Company follow. LONE PINE COMPANYComparative Balance SheetsDecember 31, 20X2 and 20X1 ($000 Omitted)20X2 20X1Assets Current Assets Cash and Short-Term Investments $400 $600 Accounts Receivable (net) 3,000 2,400Inventories 3,000 2,300Total Current Assets $6,400 $5,300 Property, Plant, and Equipment Land $1,700 $500 Buildings and Equipment (net) 1,500 1,000Total Property, Plant, and Equipment $3,200 $1,500 Total Assets $9,600 $6,800 Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity Current Liabilities Accounts Payable $2,800 $1,700 Notes Payable 1,100 1,900Total Current Liabilities $3,900 $3,600 Long-Term Liabilities Bonds Payable 4,100 2,100Total Liabilities $8,000 $5,700 Stockholders’ Equity Common Stock $200 $200 Retained Earnings 1,400 900Total Stockholders’ Equity $1,600 $1,100 Total Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity $9,600 $6,800 LONE PINE COMPANYStatement of Income and Retained EarningsFor the Year Ending December 31,20X2 ($000 Omitted)Net Sales* $36,000 Less: Cost of Goods Sold $20,000 Selling Expense 6,000 Administrative Expense 4,000 Interest Expense 400 Income Tax Expense 2,000 32,400 Net Income $3,600 Retained Earnings, Jan. 1 900 Ending Retained Earnings $4,500 Cash Dividends Declared and Paid 3,100 Retained Earnings, Dec. 31 $1,400 *All sales are on account. Instructions Compute the following items for Lone Pine Company for 20X2, rounding all calcu¬lations to two decimal places when necessary: a. Quick ratio b. Current ratio c. Inventory-turnover ratio d. Accounts-receivable-turnover ratio e.
Misc. Finance MCQs Misc. Finance MCQs Question 2. What should each service entry of a chart include?A. The next appointment dateB. The fee required for each serviceC. The date, surfaces involved, and the tooth numberD. The surfaces involved only if extensive3. The two major groups of records found in a dental office are _______ records and _______ records.A. actuary; taxB. tax; patientC. business; actuaryD. business; patient9. What is the most effective inventory system for a small dental office?A. A pegboardB. A combination of manual and computer systemsC. A computerized systemD. A well-organized manual system11. When should the process of notifying recall patients by telephone begin?A. End of the monthB. Middle of the monthC. Beginning of the monthD. No special time of the month12. What should you do if you make a mistake while entering a service rendered?A. Blacken the entry completely.B. Erase the error.C. Legibly write over the error.D. Draw a line through the error.13. The time span between appointments is determined by theA. patient.B. dentist.C. laws of the state.D. American Dental Association.14. A payment code file by letter is the organization of codes that's used in aA. credit card system.B. computerized system.C. fully automated system.D. pegboard system.15. Which one of the following statements about consumable supplies is true?A. They're used up fairly quickly.B. They're depreciated over time.C. They're in high demand by dental offices everywhere.D. They're used over a long period of time.16. What is the best way to control active file size?A. Periodically return inactive files to the patients.B. Push old records to the rear of the drawer.C. Discard files of patients who have died.D. Put inactive files in storage containers.17. In which situation is it advised to use a federal Truth in Lending form?A. When the payment is made by credit cardB. When there's extensive treatment involvedC. When there's a finance charge and/or four or more paymentsD. When there's no finance charge18. The final decision to turn cases over to a collection agency is made by theA. dentist.B. accounts receivable manager.C. insurance clerk.D. office manager.19. The management, verification, and prompt payment of a dental office's expenses for supplies, payroll,rent, and similar costs is calledA. file management.B. accounts receivable bookkeeping.C. computerized information.D. accounts payable bookkeeping.20. An itemized listing of the goods shipped that doesn't contain the pricing information is called a/anA. invoice.B. package card.C. packing slip.D. receipt.21. Medicaid is a program governed by theA. American Dental Association.B. National Consumer's Board.C. insurance carriers.D. U.S. government.22. A code that's used to describe a dental procedure isA. COB.B. EOB.C. CDT-1.D. IPA.23. When ordering supplies, what guideline should be followed?A. Be prepared with specific quantities and details when ordering.B. Telephone in your orders when you use the last of your supply.C. Backorder all supplies.D. Never give a purchase order number to a supplier.24. Who is permitted to sign a check for the dental office?A. Only the dentist or another authorized personB. The receptionistC. Any office personnel that may be availableD. A dental assistant who has been trained in signing checks25. You must send a monthly statement to a patient. According to the U.S. Postal Service guidelines,which lines should you use to address the envelope? (Remember to use the correct order.)A. Date line; address line; and city and state lines with area codeB. Attention line; and city, state, and zip code linesC. Attention line; address line; and city, state, and zip code linesD. Address line; city, state, and zip code lines; and attention line26. What is the means by which bookkeeping entries are made accurately and honestly?A. DiscountsB. Ledger cardsC. Credit card D.Audit trails
economics data bank economics data bank Question 61) With price discrimination, a monopoly A) produces less output than if it does not price discriminate. B) converts consumer surplus into deadweight loss. C) converts producer surplus into economic profit. D) can charge a single price to all customers. E) converts consumer surplus into economic profit. 61) 62) A price-discriminating monopoly A) cannot offer discounts. B) cannot control the price of its product. C) sells a larger quantity than it would if it were a single-price monopoly. D) is illegal. E) makes a smaller economic profit than it would if it were a single-price monopoly. 62) 63) In the above figure, a perfectly competitive market will have a price of ________ and a single-price monopoly will have a price of ________. A) P1 and quantity ofQ1; P2 and quantity ofQ2 B) P2 and quantity ofQ2; P3 and quantity ofQ1 C) P2 and quantity ofQ1; P1 and quantity ofQ1 D) P2 and quantity ofQ2; P1 and quantity ofQ1 E) P3 and quantity ofQ3; P1 and quantity ofQ1 63) 64) A single-price monopoly transfers A) economic profit to the government. B) consumer surplus to producers. C) producer surplus to consumers. D) economic profit to deadweight loss. E) economic profit to consumers. 64) 65) The figure above shows the demand curve, marginal revenue curve, and marginal cost curve. The amount of consumer surplus when the market has a monopoly producer is A) ace. B)bcef. C)bcd. D)abf. E)acd. 65) 66) The figure above shows the demand curve, marginal revenue curve, and marginal cost curve. The amount of consumer surplus when the market has a monopoly producer is ________ and the amount of consumer surplus when the market is perfectly competitive is ________. A) abf; aceB) ace; bcdC) ace; abfD) abf; bcdE) bcd; ace 66) 67) Compared to a perfectly competitive market, a single-price monopoly sets A) a higher price. B) a lower price. C) the same price. D) a price that might be higher, lower, or the same depending on whether the monopoly's marginal revenue curve lies above, below, or on its demand curve. E) a price that might be higher, lower, or the same depending on whether the monopoly's marginal cost curve lies above, below, or on its marginal revenue curve. 67) 68) Compared to a perfectly competitive industry, a single-price monopoly produces A) the same output. B) more output. C) less output. D) some amount that might be more, less, or the same depending on whether the monopoly's marginal revenue curve lies above, below, or on its demand curve. E) some amount that might be more, less, or the same depending on whether the monopoly's marginal cost curve lies above, below, or on its marginal revenue curve. 68) 69) Mark owns a cattle ranch near Hugo, Oklahoma. Mark is currently producing beef at an output level where marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost. In order to maximize his profit, Mark should A) decrease his output. B) shut down his ranch. C) increase his output. D) not change his output. E) probably change his output, but more information is needed to determine if he should increase, decrease, or not change it. 69) 70) When compared to a perfectly competitive market, a single-price monopoly with the same costs produces ________ output and charges ________ price. A) a smaller; a lower B) a larger; a lower C) a smaller; a higher D) a smaller; the same E) the same; a higher 70) 71) Suppose the Busy Bee Cafe´is the monopoly producer of hamburgers in Hugo, Oklahoma. The above figure represents the demand, marginal revenue, and marginal cost curves for this establishment. What quantity will the Busy Bee produce to maximize its profit? A) 20 hamburgers per hour B) 50 hamburgers per hour C) 10 hamburgers per hour D) 0 hamburgers per hour. E) 30 hamburgers per hour 71) Price(dollars) Quantity(units) 6 1 5 2 4 3 3 4 2 5 1 6 72) The above table gives the demand schedule for a monopoly. The demand is elastic at all prices between A) $3 and $1. B) $5 and $1. C) $4 and $3. D) $6 and $1. E) $6 and $4. 72) 73) The above table gives the demand schedule for a monopoly. The demand is inelastic over the entire price range between A) $6 and $4. B) $6 and $1. C) $3 and $1. D) $4 and $3. E) $5 and $1. 73) 74) If the Boston Red Sox baseball team is currently charging a ticket price where its demand is inelastic, then the Red Sox's marginal revenue is A) positive. B) zero. C) undefined. D) maximized. E) negative. 74) Quantity (units) Price (dollars per unit) 1 8 2 7 3 6 4 5 5 4 6 3 75) The table above gives the demand for a monopolist's output. What is the total revenue in when 3 units of output are produced? A) $18 B) $20 C) $21 D) $6 75) 76) The table above gives the demand for a monopolist's output. What is the marginal revenue when output is increased from 5 to 6 units? A) $18 B)-$2 C) $4 D) $3 76) 77) The demand curve facing a single-price monopoly is A) the same as only the marginal revenue curve. B) the same as both the marginal revenue curve and the marginal cost curve. C) below the marginal revenue curve. D) above the marginal revenue curve. E) the same as only the marginal cost curve. 77) 78) A single-price monopoly can sell 10 units of its product at a price of $45 each but to sell 11 units, the monopoly must cut the price to $44. What is the marginal revenue of the extra unit sold? A) $484 B) $450 C) $34 D)-$1 E) $44 78) 79) A single-price monopoly faces a linear demand curve. If the marginal revenue for the second unit is $20, then the marginal revenue for the A) third unit is also $20. B) third unit is less than $20. C) first unit is less than $20. D) third unit is more than $20. E) more information is needed to determine if the marginal revenue for the third unit is more than, less than, or equal to $20. 79) 80) For a single-price monopoly, price is A) greater than marginal revenue. B) equal to marginal revenue. C) less than marginal revenue because the firm must lower its price in order to sell another unit of output. D) less than marginal revenue because the firm cannot increase its total revenue when the demand curve is downward sloping. E) equal to zero because the firm is not a price taker. 80)
business managment data bank business managment data bank Question 51. Molly heads a large company that has just experienced a major brain drain. She immediately increases compensation to new employees and gives each employee with over 10 year experience an extra 3 days of paid vacation per year. This is an example of: a) strategic HR planning. b) proactive HR strategy. c) reactive HR strategy. d) a knee-jerk reaction. e) downsizing. 52. Managers who often depend on their personal views and experiences to solve problems and make business decisions run the risk of: a) alienating employees who want to contribute to the decision-making process. b) undermining the goals of the company by becoming too independent. c) taking on more responsibility than is necessary in a given business venture. d) making assumptions about the business and economic environment that are untrue, thereby threatening the profitability of the company. e) threatening the profitability of the company by encouraging centralized decision- making processes. 53. For the Strategic HR Planning Process to stimulate critical thinking: a) it needs to create common bonds among the various work units in the organization. b) it should focus on day-to-day management issues. c) it cannot include specific operational planning but must remain at the conceptual level. d) it should manage work flows at the same time. e) it must be a continuing, flexible process rather than a rigid procedure. 54. Creating a sense of community and shared values and goals among employees at a firm can often increase: a) innovation and customer focus within the firm. b) decentralization within the firm. c) brain drain. d) gaps between the current situation and the future goals. e) the disinterest of line managers. 55. One challenge of Strategic HR Planning is: a) getting employees to accept empowerment strategies. b) decreasing job security while lowering labor costs. c) being appropriately reactive to problems in the firm and external environment. d) building HR strategies independent of the overall business strategy of the company. e) developing strategies that offer a firm a sustained competitive advantage. 56. Ima is focusing on recruiting qualified employees for her growing company, reviewing benefit plans in order to offer competitive compensation packages, and is generally very involved with a number of urgent HR needs and “fire fighting.” Ima is facing the strategic HR planning challenge of: a) reinforcing the overall business strategy with her HR strategies. b) excessive concentration on day-to-day problems. c) coping with the external environment. d) securing management commitment to her HR strategies. e) none of the above 57. The challenges inherent in Strategic HR Planning include: a) identifying HR constraints and limitations. b) creating common bonds. c) developing HR strategies suited to unique organizational features. d) explicating company goals. e) all of the above 58. Town House Publishing is implementing a new HR strategy, and to give it the best chance of succeeding, the HR department should: a) increase diversity in the environment. b) ensure managers’ commitment to the strategy. c) create a back-up strategy to implement in case the initial strategy fails. d) centralize management in order to communicate more effectively with employees. e) maximize efforts to control day-to-day problems. 59. The acid test for an HR strategic plan is: a) management’s commitment to it. b) whether it makes a practical difference for the company. c) how people oriented it is. d) if it provides fast solutions. e) if it is an emergent strategy rather than an intended strategy. 60. Intended strategies are _______ as opposed to emergent strategies, which are _______. a) proactive / reactive b) spontaneous / planned c) fuzzy / detailed d) based on company politics / based on company environment e) necessary in large companies / necessary in smaller companies 61. Emergent strategies generally: a) evolve and change as needs arise. b) involve only portions of an organization. c) are proactive and well developed in advance. d) encourage strong leadership within a firm. e) are less beneficial to a small company. 62. Working on his HR strategic plan, Jose is thinking about whether to recommend specific job descriptions or broad job classes, and detailed or loose work planning. Jose is considering the HR strategic choice related to: a) performance appraisals. b) training and development. c) staffing. d) work flows. e) employee compensation. 63. If a firm is working on its strategic HR choices in the staffing area, it would be looking at decisions about: a) imposing a hiring freeze to avoid laying off workers. b) developing an appraisal system that invites participation by multiple employee groups. c) empowering supervisors to make hiring decisions. d) detailed work planning. e) deciding whether to hire high wage people or train people internally. 64. When considering HR strategies regarding employee separations, managers must consider: a) whether to use layoffs or voluntary inducements to downsize a firm. b) whether to empower supervisors to make hiring decisions. c) whether to encourage decentralization or centralization of the firm to better enhance employee relations. d) whether to compensate long-term employees more than recent hires. e) whether to create rigid job descriptions in order to keep the responsibilities of managers and their subordinates from becoming interrelated. 65. When developing performance appraisals, a firm needs to make strategic HR choices concerning: a) how data will be used in job descriptions. b) training and career development for those whose job performance is substandard. c) the quality of work that an employee must exhibit in order to maintain his or her employment. d) which kind of appraisal system (customized or general) will work best for the organization. e) how to maintain the privacy of managers and employees while collecting data regarding their job performance. 66. If an HR department is reviewing whether to use discipline as a control mechanism or as a proactive way to encourage appropriate behavior, it is considering its strategic choices within the HR function of: a) work flows. b) performance appraisal. c) employee rights. d) employee and/or labor relations. e) employee separations. 67. Candles, Inc. is currently evaluating the _______ they give their employees, including stock options, benefit packages, and raises based on performance. a) employee rights b) compensation c) worker awards d) salary e) kudos 68. Timberlake Corporation is reconsidering recent choices regarding employee and labor relations, including: a) the strong “top-down” communication from managers to subordinates. b) the discipline policy regarding Internet use at work. c) a policy that tends to protect employees’ interests over those of the employer. d) the new on-the-job training for incoming employees. e) compensation of managers versus compensation of lower-level employees. 69. Which of the following is NOT a key strategic HR choice when working with international management in a business? a) Establishing a repatriation agreement with each employee going abroad versus avoiding any commitment to expatriates. b) Sending expatriates abroad to manage foreign subsidiaries versus hiring local people to manage them. c) Establishing travel packages and benefits to those who will be expatriated versus making other compensation changes. d) Creating a common company culture to reduce inter-country cultural differences versus allowing foreign subsidiaries to adapt to local cultures. e) Establishing company policies that must be followed in all subsidiaries versus decentralizing policy formulation so that each local office can develop its own. 70. The relative contribution of an HR strategy to an organization’s performance increases: a) the less it fits the external environment. b) to the degree that it increases bottom-line profitability, regardless of the cost to labor. c) if the HR strategy is distinct from the firm’s business strategies. d) the more HR strategies are independent of each other. e) the more HR strategy fits the uniqueness of the organization. 71. Which of the following is NOT critically important when determining which HR strategies will positively impact a firm’s performance? a) organizational capabilities. b) organizational strategies. c) organizational characteristics. d) environment. e) overall cost leadership strategy. 72. For an HR strategic plan to fit with organizational strategies, it needs to align with: a) individual employees’ personal goals. b) its use of technology. c) work flows used by the organization. d) the firm’s corporate and business unit strategies. e) the company’s international management plans. 73. An evolutionary corporation would most likely display which of the following characteristics? a) It would be a mixture of several different industrial firms. b) It would exhibit strong managerial control over employees. c) It would be very decentralized and flexible. d) It would emphasize long-term career development among employees. e) It would emphasize moral commitment. 74. Which of the following HR strategies best fits a firm with an overall cost leadership business strategy? a) emphasis on innovation and flexibility. b) external recruitment. c) performance appraisal as a control device. d) broad job classifications. e) all of the above 75. A firm’s differentiation business strategy refers to: a) employee satisfaction. b) the defender’s strategy. c) cost effectiveness of production. d) the creation of a unique product or service. e) the emphasis of the focus strategy.
business managment data bank business managment data bank Question Case 4.2 MGN, Inc. is a Fortune 500 company that has just come to realize its need for managing diversity. HR is facilitating meetings among middle managers to both communicate this idea and to get input from the managers about how best to carry out this goal. Mercedes, a Latina manager, suggests that the company ought not to do more than what is already being done. She cites the company’s previous affirmative action plan. “Also,” she argues, “we’ve given African-Americans and Asian-Americans more than enough opportunity. I tried to promote a Latino to supervisor and you guys (HR dept.) told me I really needed to give Kym, an African-American, the opportunity.” Paul, a white supervisor, feels that management is management. Managing diversity is just a gimmick, a passing fad. “I've been a supervisor for 20 years and I’ve found that if I treat people fairly and listen to them, things work out just fine.” Ana, a relatively new middle-manager, is a bit more positive about the idea but has significant reservations. She feels, however, that the company really needs to give women and minorities access to the “old boy network.” If all the company does is conduct training and devise slogans, nothing will happen. Finally, Rahkim, an African-American supervisor, says he doesn’t care what they do. He’s giving notice because he’s joining some other African-Americans in starting their own company. He’s been a supervisor for five years and has been passed over for promotion twice. He feels that he has experienced discrimination because he’s African-American. 83. Refer to Case 4.2. The above shows a number of challenges to implementing a managing diversity program. Mercedes’ concerns represent which of the following challenges? a) Valuing diversity. b) Individual vs. group fairness. c) Segmented communication networks. d) Focusing on performance. e) Competition for opportunities. 84. Refer to Case 4.2. The manager(s) in this discussion who would most likely agree with the universal concept of management is(are): a) Mercedes. b) Paul. c) Ana. d) Rahkim. e) Mercedes and Ana. 85. Refer to Case 4.2. Ana’s concerns reflect the reality of the experiences of women and minorities with: a) individual versus group fairness. b) the resistance to change. c) segmented communication networks. d) resentment. e) retention. 86. Refer to Case 4.2. Rahkim’s lack of concern with this issue and his announcement symbolize the organization’s general problem with: a) valuing diversity. b) interpersonal conflict. c) resentment. d) retention. e) competition for opportunities. 87. Refer to Case 4.2. As you review the comments and thoughts of these various managers, what challenge to managing diversity seems to be expressed by all? a) Valuing diversity. b) Individual vs. group fairness. c) Resistance to change. d) Segmented communication networks. e) Competition for opportunities. Case 4.3 Your retail company has 80% of its stores located in downtown metropolitan areas. Your biggest stores are in communities where minorities represent 60% of your customers. Your middle-management team has been changing over time so that 50% of your managers are women and about 30% are ethnic minorities. A significant number of your hourly employees, about 35%, have served over 20 years in their respective stores and many are over 40 years of age. Top management feels that African-Americans are underrepresented in the hourly workforce and in middle management. They want HR to initiate an aggressive recruitment process to address the situation. Hispanics are the biggest minority group, besides women, in your workforce. In a discussion about where the company should target its diversity program, the CEO explains she wants to implement a training program for managers to raise their sensitivity to minorities, especially Hispanics. She also notes that there are no disabled persons in the workforce and very few Asian-Americans. Carlos, the VP of facilities, notes that he has accommodated all the Asian-American employees he can in his MIS and facility support services. He also argues that he only has about $10,000 in his budget for reorganizing display space, etc., in the stores to accommodate disabled employees and that this amount probably isn’t sufficient to adequately accommodate a disabled employee. 88. Refer to Case 4.3. Given the major problems African-Americans face in the work place, what complementary program should HR initiate at the same time as their recruiting effort? a) Diversity training. b) Senior mentoring. c) Flextime or job sharing. d) Interpersonal skills and management training. e) Education and technical education training. 89. Refer to Case 4.3. Carlos’ comments about accommodating disabled employees: a) show that he doesn't value diversity. b) reveal the common misconception of accommodation costs. c) show that he is inherently prejudiced against the disabled. d) demonstrate that he is considering what is best for the company. e) are an example of the competition for opportunities among the various minority groups. 90. Refer to Case 4.3. What is a key issue for the CEO in implementing diversity training that would focus on understanding Hispanic culture? a) That some will wonder why the program focuses on this group since most people view Hispanics as advantaged because of their academic achievements. b) That it may be expensive to provide Hispanics access to the physical plant. c) That poverty is a key issue and consequently Hispanics tend to need additional educational assistance to be competitive. d) That Hispanic is a misnomer, since there are actually very diverse subgroupings of Latinos. e) That there are no special considerations or issues to worry about. 91. Refer to Case 4.3. What special issues does management need to consider with regard to older workers? a) They tend to be less motivated as they get older and therefore need more training and supervision than younger workers. b) Older workers should be treated as individuals. Most function as well as they did 20 years earlier. c) They will tend to get into conflicts with younger employees and therefore should work more with their peers than younger employees. d) Older workers tend to have poorer health. e) They don’t learn well and resist changing processes they’ve done for years. 92. Refer to Case 4.3. Given the barriers to women’s advancement in the workplace, which of the following efforts would be most effective in helping women advance? a) Affirmative action quotas. b) Education programs raising their technical skills. c) Senior mentoring. d) Apprenticeships. e) Communication standards.
Question_Doc14_15Dec_5th Question_Doc14_15Dec_5th Question 13) The optimal quantity of air pollution is A) whatever amount of pollution is produced by the profit maximizing firm. B) found by equating the marginal benefits from further reductions in pollution and the marginal costs of further reductions in pollution. C) found by setting the quantity of air pollution equal to the quantity of water pollution. D) a meaningless concept since monetary values cannot be attached to problems associated with pollution. 14) Which of the following statements concerning pollution is correct? A) Economic efficiency requires that pollution be completely eliminated. B) Economic efficiency dictates that the optimal amount of pollution arises at the point at which price equals private marginal cost. C) Pollution should be reduced to the point at which the marginal benefit from further reduction equals the marginal cost of further reduction. D) Pollution should be reduced to the extent necessary to return production to the production possibilities frontier. 15) In economic analysis, the optimal level of pollution A) is always zero. B) arises at the point at which the marginal benefit from further reduction equals the marginal cost of further reduction. C) occurs at the point at which demand crosses the private cost supply curve. D) should be determined by the private market without any government intervention. 16) From an economic standpoint, the amount of pollution should be A) zero. B) the amount that allows firms to maximize profits. C) the amount where firms are earning a normal rate of return on investment. D) at the point at which the marginal benefit from further reduction equals the marginal cost of further reduction. 17) The optimal amount of pollution is not zero because A) it has been found that pollution in moderate amounts actually has positive benefits. B) there are no benefits to anyone from having zero pollution. C) zero pollution would be too costly. D) we don't have the political structure that could accomplish the goal. 18) The marginal benefit of pollution abatement A) increases at an increasing rate as abatement increases. B) decreases as pollution abatement increases because of the law of diminishing marginal utility. C) increases as pollution abatement increases because of the law of increasing marginal returns. D) is constant as pollution abatement increases. 19) The costs of pollution abatement A) increase at an increasing rate with the increase in pollution abatement. B) increase at a decreasing rate with the increase in pollution abatement. C) decrease at an increasing rate with the increase in pollution abatement. D) decrease at a decreasing rate with the increase in pollution abatement. 20) Refer to the above figure. The marginal cost of pollution abatement is curve A) (1). B) (2). C) (3). D) (4). 21) Refer to the above figure. The marginal benefit of pollution abatement is curve A) (1). B) (2). C) (3). D) (4). 22) Refer to the above figure. If the marginal cost curve for pollution abatement shifts to the right, everything considered, the A) degree of air quality or cleanliness will also decrease. B) the degree of air quality or cleanliness will stay unchanged. C) the degree of air quality will improve. D) the marginal cost of pollution abatement has nothing to do with air quality. 23) Refer to the above figure. Suppose the marginal benefit and the marginal cost curves of pollution abatement are normally shaped. Technological change that made it easier to produce in a "cleaner" fashion would cause A) curve (4) to shift out, increasing the optimal amount of pollution abatement. B) curve (3) to shift up, raising the marginal benefits and costs and reducing the amount of pollution abatement. C) curve (2) to shift out, increasing the optimal amount of pollution abatement. D) curve (1) to shift out, increasing the optimal amount of pollution abatement. 24) Refer to the above figure. Suppose the marginal benefit and the marginal cost curves of pollution abatement are normally shaped. Suppose the equilibrium is for a factory in Los Angeles. What would happen if the same factory were in the middle of Nevada? A) The marginal cost curve (1) would shift to (2) and there would be no difference in the level of abatement. B) The marginal cost curve (2) would shift to the left and there would be less abatement in Nevada. C) The marginal benefit curve (4) would shift to the left and there would be less abatement in Nevada. D) The marginal benefit curve (2) would shift to the right and there would be more abatement in Nevada. 25) The marginal cost curve of pollution abatement is A) downward sloping. B) upward sloping. C) horizontal. D) vertical. 26) Technological change that makes it easier to produce in a "cleaner" fashion would cause A) the marginal cost curve of pollution abatement to shift left, increasing the degree of air quality. B) the marginal cost curve of pollution abatement to shift right, increasing the degree of air quality C) the marginal benefit curve of pollution abatement to shift right, increasing the degree of air quality D) the marginal benefit curve of pollution abatement to shift left, increasing the degree of air quality 27) Suppose people value clean air more as their incomes increase, then A) the marginal cost curve of pollution abatement to shift left, increasing the degree of air quality. B) the marginal cost curve of pollution abatement to shift right, increasing the degree of air quality C) the marginal benefit curve of pollution abatement to shift right, increasing the degree of air quality D) the marginal benefit curve of pollution abatement to shift left, increasing the degree of air quality 28) The marginal cost curve of pollution abatement A) slopes upward because of the law of diminishing product. B) slopes upward because firms will maximize profits. C) slopes downward because of the law of diminishing marginal utility. D) slopes downward because of the law of diminishing returns. 29) The optimal amount of air pollution is A) found by equating the marginal benefits from reducing pollution by one more unit with the marginal costs of reducing pollution by an additional unit. B) found by equating the total benefits from reducing pollution by one more unit with the total costs of reducing pollution by an additional unit. C) found by setting the marginal benefits from reducing pollution by one more unit equal to zero. D) a meaningless concept since we cannot monetize the environment. 30) Which of the following statements is true about the optimal quantity of pollution? A) It equals zero. B) Pollution abatement should continue up to the point where marginal cost equals the average total cost. C) Trade-offs exist between producing a cleaner environment and producing other goods and services. D) Firms should be allowed to determine the profit-maximizing amount of pollution abatement. 31) Why is the optimal quantity of pollution not less than the point at which the marginal benefit equals the marginal cost? A) The point of intersection occurs at a low level of pollution. B) There are no external costs below that level. C) Below that point firms will have to reduce the quantity that they are currently producing and lower the price. D) Below that point the value that people place on less pollution is less than the cost of reducing the pollution. 32) In the above figure, the optimal level of pollution cleanup is A) Q1. B) Q2. C) Q3 D) Q4 33) In the above figure, if a firm is cleaning up Q4 units of pollution, it is an A) efficient solution, because marginal social benefits are greater than marginal social costs. B) efficient solution, because marginal social benefits are equal to marginal social costs. C) inefficient solution, because marginal social benefits are greater than marginal social costs. D) inefficient solution, because marginal social costs are greater than marginal social benefits. 34) In the above figure, if a firm is cleaning up Q2 units of pollution, it is an A) efficient solution, because marginal social benefits are greater than marginal social costs. B) efficient solution, because marginal social benefits are equal to marginal social costs. C) inefficient solution, because marginal social benefits are greater than marginal social costs. D) inefficient solution, because marginal social costs are greater than marginal social benefits. 35) In the above figure, if a firm is cleaning up Q3 units of pollution, it is an A) efficient solution because marginal social benefits are greater than marginal social costs. B) efficient solution because marginal social benefits are equal to marginal social costs. C) inefficient solution because marginal social benefits are greater than marginal social costs. D) inefficient solution because marginal social costs are greater than marginal social benefits. 36) According to economic analysis, the optimal quantity of pollution exists at the point at which the A) total benefit of pollution control is equal to the total cost. B) marginal benefit of pollution control is equal to the marginal cost. C) level of pollution is at zero. D) level of pollution is acceptable to the society. 37) Pollution A) creates a negative externality. B) is increased when property rights are defined. C) is the result of capitalism. D) exists because air and water are privately owned resources. 38) The idea that it takes 90 percent of your time to clean up the last 10 percent of your house illustrates that A) the marginal cost of cleaning up slopes downward. B) the marginal cost of cleaning up slopes upward. C) the marginal benefit of cleaning up is constant. D) the marginal benefit of cleaning up slopes upward. 39) The marginal benefit of the pollution abatement curve A) has a zero slope. B) has a positive slope. C) slopes upward. D) slopes downward. 40) Voluntary agreements about cleaning up pollution attempt to A) internalize externalities. B) internalize private costs. C) externalize social costs. D) externalize private costs. 41) Generally, as levels of pollution are reduced, A) marginal benefits from the reduction decrease. B) marginal benefits from the reduction increase. C) marginal costs from the reduction decrease. D) marginal cost from the reduction are constant. . 42) Generally, as levels of pollution are reduced, A) marginal benefits from the reduction increase. B) marginal costs from the reduction increase. C) marginal costs from the reduction stay the same. D) marginal costs from the reduction decrease. 43) The level of pollution at which the marginal benefits equal the marginal cost of cleaning up is always A) the zero pollution level. B) the optimal quantity of pollution. C) the pollution maximum. D) the pollution minimum. . 44) In the above figure, A) the optimal degree of air cleanliness is less than 100 percent. B) the marginal cost curve slopes up because of the law of diminishing returns. C) Neither A nor B are correct. D) Both A and B are correct. 45) The optimal quantity of pollution in the above figure A) is defined as the level where the marginal benefit is at a maximum. B) is where the optimal degree of air cleanliness is 100 percent. C) is the level of pollution at which the marginal benefit equals the marginal cost. D) cannot be determined. 46) The above table shows marginal costs and marginal benefits of clean air in a particular industrial area. In the table, when the quantity of clean air is at 25 percent, A) the quantity of polluted air is 25 percent. B) the marginal benefit of clean air exceeds the marginal cost. C) the marginal benefit of clean air is less than the marginal cost. D) the quantity of clean air is optimal. 47) The above table shows marginal costs and marginal benefits of clean air in a particular industrial area. In the table, when the quantity of clean air is at 75 percent, A) the quantity of polluted air is 75 percent. B) the marginal benefit of clean air exceeds the marginal cost. C) the marginal benefit of clean air is less than the marginal cost. D) the quantity of clean air is optimal. 48) In the above table, the optimal quantity of clean air is A) 25 percent. B) 50 percent. C) 75 percent. D) 100 percent. 49) The marginal cost of pollution abatement is the A) additional cost to clean up an additional unit of pollution. B) additional benefit from cleaning up an additional unit of pollution. C) total social costs of pollution clean-up divided by total social benefits. D) total social costs of pollution clean-up divided by the total units of clean-up. 50) The marginal benefit of pollution abatement is the A) additional cost to clean up an additional unit of pollution. B) additional benefit from cleaning up an additional unit of pollution. C) total social costs of pollution clean-up divided by total social benefits. D) total social costs of pollution clean-up divided by the total units of clean-up. 51) Explain how the optimal quantity of air pollution is determined. . 52) "The optimal level of pollution is zero." Do you agree or disagree? Why?