BUSI561 quiz 1

BUSI561 quiz 1

Question

· 4 out of 4 points



The view that judges find the law in the history, culture and customs of their people is known as Sociological Jurisprudence

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· Question 2

4 out of 4 points



According to Legal Positivism, judges, by their decisions, can and do guide the evolution of the law.

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· Question 3

4 out of 4 points



A local policeman in an area known for drug trafficking arrests Fred because he “looks suspicious” and he is held in jail for 60 days without appearing before a magistrate. The policeman:

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· Question 4

4 out of 4 points



Freedom from tyranny is an aspect of:

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BUSI561 quiz 1




· Question 5

4 out of 4 points



Unethical forms of advertising include:

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· Question 6

4 out of 4 points



A Pennsylvania law prohibiting women from working in coal mines, if challenged in federal court, would probably be evaluated under:

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· Question 7

4 out of 4 points



Comparing the facts of our case to that of prior appellate decisions with similar facts is known as analogizing.

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· Question 8

4 out of 4 points



The science or philosophy of law in a general sense is known as:

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· Question 9

4 out of 4 points



A _____________________ is a form of law made by a President or Governor.

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· Question 10

4 out of 4 points



Published by the American Law Institute, the ________________ of law are the work primarily of law professors, whoare charged with presenting “an orderly statement of the common law of the United States.”

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BUSI561 quiz 1




· Question 11

4 out of 4 points



A phrase or term in a statute that is ambiguous is subject to two or more different meanings.

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· Question 12

4 out of 4 points



The First Amendment’s Establishment Clause places an explicit prohibition on:

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· Question 13

4 out of 4 points



The right to a fair and impartial hearing before a disinterested magistrate is a matter of substantive due process.

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BUSI561 quiz 1




· Question 14

4 out of 4 points



Contending that bloggers should be treated in the law in a manner similar to traditional journalists might be an example of:

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· Question 15

4 out of 4 points



A central aspect of the “rule of law” is that no one is above the law.

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· Question 16

4 out of 4 points



The requirement that a landowner receive just compensation for property taken by the federal government to extend an interstate highway is guaranteed under the:

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· Question 17

4 out of 4 points



The Bill of Rights were primarily designed to place limitations on the actions of the federal government, and not upon states or individuals.

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· Question 18

4 out of 4 points



The idea that we are “endowed by our creator with certain unalienable rights” is most consistent with which legal philosophy?

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· Question 19

4 out of 4 points



Even if a state regulation only impacts interstate commerce in a minor, incidental way, it will still always be considered a violation of the Commerce Clause.

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· Question 20

4 out of 4 points



Sources of American Law include:

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PHI 208 WEEK 2 Discussions

PHI 208 WEEK 2 Discussions

Question

Ethics and Relativism
Our text discusses the challenge relativism presents to various ethical and religious viewpoints. Consider a specific moral question which might make it difficult to accept the relativist's response. State the moral issue involved, and provide an explanation as to why you think a relativist might have a problem giving a justified response to it. In addition, use one of the positive ethical theories from the text to interpret the issue and how one should respond to this issue.


Dq2


Animal Rights
Do human beings have any obligations to animals in terms of their treatment? If it is wrong to treat animals cruelly, why is it not wrong to eat them? Explain if, and how, you think humans can find a balance between treating animals ethically while also raising them for food and for other reasons, such as the testing of pharmaceuticals

Finance Multiple Four Problems

Finance Multiple Four Problems

Question


1. Archer Daniels Midland Company is considering buying a new farm that it plans to operate for 10 years. The farm will require an initial investment of $12.20 million. This investment will consist of $2.30 million for land and $9.90 million for trucks and other equipment. The land, all trucks, and all other equipment is expected to be sold at the end of 10 years at a price of $5.08 million, $2.00 million above book value. The farm is expected to produce revenue of $2.10 million each year, and annual cash flow from operations equals $1.96 million. The marginal tax rate is 35 percent, and the appropriate discount rate is 10 percent. Calculate the NPV of this investment. Should it be accepted or rejected?

2. Briarcrest Condiments is a spice-making firm. Recently, it developed a new process for producing spices. The process requires new machinery that would cost $1,541,296. have a life of five years, and would produce the cash flows shown in the following table.

Year Cash Flow

1 $633,804
2 -213,739
3 841,438
4 999,903
5 889,876

What is the NPV if the discount rate is 13.39 percent?

3. Bell Mountain Vineyards is considering updating its current manual accounting system with a high-end electronic system. While the new accounting system would save the company money, the cost of the system continues to decline. The Bell Mountain’s opportunity cost of capital is 13.6 percent, and the costs and values of investments made at different times in the future are as follows:

Year Cost Value of Future Savings
(at time of purchase)

0 $5,000 $7,000
1 4,700 7,000
2 4,400 7,000
3 4,100 7,000
4 3,800 7,000
5 3,500 7,000


Calculate the NPV of each choice. (Round answers to the nearest whole dollar, e.g. 5,275.)

The NPV of each choice is:

NPV0 = $

NPV1 = $

NPV2 = $

NPV3 = $

NPV4 = $

NPV5 = $
Suggest when should Bell Mountain buy the new accounting system?

4. Castle Company produces throw blankets that are popular holiday gifts. Standard variable costs relating to a single blanket are given below


Standard Quantity or Hours
Standard Price or Rate
Standard Cost
Direct materials
2.62 yards
$5 per yard$?
Direct labor
1.35 DLH
$6.80 per DLH $?
Variable manufacturing overhead
1.35 DLH
$2 per direct labor-hour$?
Total standard cost $?
Overhead is applied to production on the basis of direct labor hours. During March, 924 blankets were manufactured and sold.

Selected information related to the month’s production is given below:


Materials Used
Direct Labor
Variable Manufacturing Overhead
Actual costs incurred
$11,500
$8,408
$3,100
Direct materials price variance?


Actual
2,620 yards
1400 hours

Direct materials quantity variance
$1,000 U


Direct labor rate variance ?

Direct labor efficiency variance ?

Variable overhead rate variance?
Variable overhead efficiency variance ?
*For this month’s production of 924 blankets
Submit an Excel document with each tab labeled by item number in good form that demonstrates the following through your calculations:

1. What is the standard cost of a single blanket?

2. What was the actual cost per blanket produced during March?

3. What was the direct materials price variance for March?

4. What was the direct labor rate variance for March? The direct labor efficiency variance?

5. What was the variable overhead rate variance for March? The variable overhead efficiency variance?

SafeRide, Inc_ Accept or reject the order

SafeRide, Inc_ Accept or reject the order

Question

SafeRide, Inc. produces air bag systems that it sells to North American automobile manufacturers. Although the company has a capacity of 300,000 units per year, it is currently producing at an annual rate of 180,000 units. SafeRide, Inc. has received an order from a German manufacturer to purchase 60,000 units at $9.00 each. Budgeted costs for 180,000 and 240,000 units are as follows:

180,000 Units

240,000 Units

Manufacturing costs

Direct materials

$ 450,000

$ 600,000

Direct labor

315,000

420,000

Factory overhead

1,215,000


1,260,000


Total

1,980,000

2,280,000

Selling and administrative

765,000


780,000


Total

$ 2,745,000


$ 3,060,000


Costs per unit

Manufacturing

$ 11.00

$ 9.50

Selling and administrative

4.25


3.25


Total

$ 15.25


$ 12.75



Sales to North American manufacturers are priced at $20 per unit, but the sales manager believes the company should aggressively seek the German business even if it results in a loss of $3.75 per unit. She believes obtaining this order would open up several new markets for the company's product. The general manager commented that the company cannot tighten its belt to absorb the $225,000 loss ($3.75 × 60,000) it would incur if the order is accepted.

(a) Calculate the net benefit (cost) of accepting the order from the German business.

(b) Calculate the net benefit (cost) of accepting the order from the German business, assuming the company is operating at full capacity.

ABC’s CFO is considering whether to take on a new project

ABC’s CFO is considering whether to take on a new project

Question ABC’s CFO is considering whether to take on a new project that has average risk. He collected the following information:

• The company has bonds outstanding that mature in 26 years with an annual coupon of 7.5 percent. The bonds have a face value of $1,000 and sell in the market today for $920. There are 10,000 bonds outstanding.
• The risk-free rate is 6 percent.
• The market risk premium is 5 percent.
• The stock’s beta is 1.2.
• The company’s tax rate is 40 percent.
• The company has 50,000 shares of preferred stock with a par value of $100. These shares are currently trading at $105 and pay an annual dividend of $5.40.
• The company also has 1,850,000 common shares trading at $25. These shares last paid an annual dividend of $0.93.

1. What is ABS’c after-tax cost of debt?

2. What is ABC’s cost of preferred equity?

3. What is ABC’s Wd?

Assignment 1: Inventory Management Systems

Assignment 1: Inventory Management Systems

Question Assignment 1: Inventory Management Systems Due Week 2 and worth 100 points Your sister owns a small clothing store. During a conversation at a family dinner, she mentions her frustration with having to manually track and reorder high demand items. She would like an automated system but has a very small budget.

Write a 4-5 page paper in which you create a plan for a low-cost automated inventory system in which you:
Describe all the necessary equipment.
Explain the costs involved in the creation of the system.
Describe the ongoing maintenance that will be required.
Provide a workflow diagram in Visio or equivalent software to illustrate how the system will work.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double-spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Excel, Visio, MS Project, or one of their equivalents such as Open Project, Dia, and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams/charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.
The specific Course Learning Outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Describe the types of business needs that can be addressed using information technology-based solutions.
Create requirements for a system through a formal technique that enables a productive change in a way the business is conducted.
Use contemporary CASE tools in process and data modeling.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in systems analysis and development.
Write clearly and concisely about Systems Analysis and Development topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills

Marketing_5Dec_2nd

Marketing_5Dec_2nd

Question 31)Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect a problem with the BCG matrix
approach?
A) It focuses on future planning. B) It can be costly to conduct.
C) It can be time consuming to implement.
D) It is difficult to define SBUs and measure market share and growth. E) It focuses on
classifying current businesses.
32)Unlike strategic-planning efforts of the past, which were conducted primarily by senior
managers, today's strategic planning is more ________.
A) short-term oriented B) decentralized
C) limitation-free D)product-oriented E) centralized
33)Which department in a company carries the primary responsibility for achieving profitable
growth?
A) marketing B) finance C) operations
D) human resources E) management
34)Which of the following is a useful tool for identifying growth opportunities?
A)the BCG matrix
B)the business portfolio
C)the product/market expansion grid
D)the value chain
E)the value delivery network
35)Mountain Home Farms is now using the product/market expansion grid to develop strategies.
The owners of the company have most likely found the grid to be quite useful for identifying
________.
A) target markets
B) growth opportunities C) key customers
D) new products E) suppliers
36)Making more sales without changing a firm's products is ________.
A)market development
B)market growth
C)market penetration
D)product development
E)market attractiveness
37)Disney is identifying and developing new markets for its theme parks. Disney is exploring
possibilities for ________.
A) market penetration B) market development C) downsizing
D) diversification
E) product development
38)If Under Armour, the successful maker of moisture-wicking shirts and shorts, considered
introducing a line of Under Armour fitness equipment, the company would be considering
________.
A) marketing controls B) market development C) diversification
D) market penetration E) product adaptation
39)________ entails reducing the business portfolio by eliminating products that no longer fit the
company's overall strategy.
A) Market segmentation B) BCG
C) Product line extension D) Downsizing
E) Market redesign
40)Which of the following is NOT a reason that a firm might want to abandon products or
markets?
A) The market environment has changed, making a product less profitable. B) The firm has
entered areas in which it does not have expertise.
C) The economic climate is showing signs of recovery. D) The firm has grown too fast.
E) The firm has not properly researched foreign markets which it has entered.
41)The marketing concept is best thought of as which of the following?
A)a guiding philosophy for the company's marketing strategy
B)a specific approach to building relationships with customers, vendors, and suppliers
C)the overall purpose of the company
D)the position the company's product holds in customers' minds
E)the organization of the company's marketing department
42)Each department in a company that carries out value-creating activities can be thought of as a
link in the company's ________.
A) market development B) product development C) business portfolio D) value chain
E) value delivery network
43)As a company's different functions work to produce value for consumers, the marketing
department of a firm should take the ________ point of view.
A) employees' B) managers' C) stockholders' D) consumers' E) distributors'
Copyright © 2011 Pearson Education, Inc.
44)Multinationals like Honda Motor Co. and Wal-Mart stores have designed programs to work
closely with their suppliers to help them reduce their costs and improve quality. This illustrates
the importance of an efficient ________.
A) business model B)low-cost operator C) product mix
D) value-delivery network E) problem-solver
45)________ is the marketing logic by which a company hopes to achieve profitable customer
relationships.
A) Price
B) Being a low-cost operator C) A consistent product mix D) Marketing strategy
E) Implementing a differentiation strategy
46)In a visual representation of the marketing process, which of the following should appear in
the center?
A) sales goals
B) customer relationships C) company objectives
D) customer retention rates E) competitors
47)A sound marketing strategy begins with ________.
A)positioning
B)customer analysis
C)differentiation
D)promotion
E)SWOT analysis
48)The process of customer-driven marketing involves ________, ________, ________, and
________.
A) product; price; promotion; adaptation
B) market segmentation; market targeting; differentiation; positioning C) marketing analysis;
planning; implementation; feedback
D) analysis; targeting; implementation; control
E) problem identification; information search; decision; implementation
49)The process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers with different needs,
characteristics, or behaviors is called ________.
A) market targeting B) positioning
C) marketing strategy D) market segmentation E) market extension
50)For Hyundai Corporation, customers who care primarily about the price of a car and its
operating economy make up one ________.
A) market position B) value network C) market segment
D) customer extension E) value chain
51)________ involves evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more
segments to enter.
A) Market segmentation B) Product differentiation C) Market targeting
D) Market mixing E) Positioning
52)Most companies today enter a new market by serving a ________; if this proves successful,
they ________.
A) single market segment; add segments
B) multitude of segments; add more segments C) few segments; add more segments
D) niche; differentiate
E) target market; reposition
53)________ is the place a product occupies in the consumer's mind relative to competitors'
products.
A) Product placement B) Product position
C) Market segmentation D) Market targeting
E) Product promotion
54)Jill Reno has researched new markets and has decided which segments to enter. Next she
should decide what ________ her company should occupy in those segments.
A) position B) place C) rank D) rating
E) percentage of space
.
55)Effective positioning begins with ________ the company's marketing offer in order to give
consumers more perceived value.
A) pricing B) aligning
C) differentiating D) promoting
E) placing
56)In the four Ps of the marketing mix, design, packaging, services, and variety all fall under the
category of ________.
A) product B) price
C) promotion D) place
E) position
57)The text suggests that instead of thinking of selling products, marketers would be wise to take
the customer's view and think of ________.
A) providing convenience
B) offering solutions to problems
C) initiating two-way communication D) offering discounts
E) connecting services and products
58)In the marketing management functions, a SWOT analysis should ________ a marketing
plan.
A) precede
B) coincide with C) follow
D) evaluate
E) take priority over
59)In a SWOT analysis, which of the following would be considered a strength?
A)internal limitations
B)trends in the market
C)favorable factors in the environment
D)factors that challenge the company's performance
E)internal resources
60)In a SWOT analysis, which of the following refers to factors in the external environment? A)
strengths
B) strategies C) weaknesses
D) opportunities E) trends

BA3301 exam 3

BA3301 exam 3

Question

Question 1

  1. A person who is given power of attorney is called a/an______________.




2 points

Question 2

  1. The Principal and Agent have a/an ________________relationship with each other.




2 points

Question 3

  1. If the agent dies, the agency agreement terminates by operation of law.

2 points

Question 4

  1. An agent’s knowledge is imputed to the principal.

2 points

Question 5

  1. A principal whose identity is known to a third party is a disclosed principal.

2 points

Question 6

  1. An agent who is wrongfully terminated may sue the principal for damages.

2 points

Question 7

  1. Bill hired Acme Paving to pave his driveway. Acme is Bill’s __________________.




2 points

Question 8

  1. An agent will not be indemnified for injuries caused to third parties if the agent’s negligence caused the injury.

2 points

Question 9

  1. Masters and servants have only joint liability for torts committed by the servant in the course of his employment.

2 points

Question 10

  1. Which of the following is not an element of ratification?




2 points

Question 11

  1. Agents of undisclosed principals are entitled to be indemnified if held personally liable on contracts that were within the scope of their authority.

2 points

Question 12

  1. Whether or not a servant was acting in the scope of his employment when he injured a third party is a question of __________ to be decided by the ______.




2 points

Question 13

  1. The only principal who can ratify a contract is a/an _____________ principal.




2 points

Question 14

  1. If a principal ratifies the unauthorized act of an agent, he releases the agent from any liability for the unauthorized act.

2 points

Question 15

  1. A master can normally avoid liability for damages caused by a servant if he can show that the servant misunderstood his instructions.

2 points

Question 16

  1. A person who breaches a duty that is neither a contractual duty nor a crime, he commits a ____________.




2 points

Question 17

  1. Which federal statute sets standards for employee pension and benefits plans?




2 points

Question 18

  1. The Family and Medical Leave Act requires that employees who are out of work for a “serious health condition” be paid for the time they are out of work.

2 points

Question 19

  1. What must an employee do in order to collect workers compensation?




2 points

Question 20

  1. An employee cannot be terminated under an employment at will contract for refusing to commit an illegal act.

2 points

Question 21

  1. An employer whose termination of an at-will employee violates a public policy is liable to the employee for _______.




2 points

Question 22

  1. Which federal statute regulates minimum wages, overtime and the employment of minors?




2 points

Question 23

  1. When workers protest a management policy by refusing voluntary overtime and arranging for selected workers to call in sick, they are engaging in a ________.




2 points

Question 24

  1. An employer who prevents employees from coming to work in an effort to accelerate contract negotiations between management and union leadership engages in a/an_______.




2 points

Question 25

  1. Courts provide administrative agencies significant discretion to ________.




2 points

Question 26

  1. A subpoena _______ is an order from an administrative agency compelling an unwilling witness to testify under oath at an administrative agency proceeding.




2 points

Question 27

  1. Administrative agency action will be ______ if constitutional rights were infringed upon or other aspects of the Constitution were not followed.




2 points

Question 28

  1. The requirement that a person who wishes to sue show injury is called _______.




2 points

Question 29

  1. The party against whom an administrative complaint is filed is the _____, who is afforded the right to respond to the complaint in writing.




2 points

Question 30

  1. Administrative agencies are strictly guided by the separation of powers doctrine.

2 points

Question 31

  1. Which of the following requires a court to overturn a newly crafted agency rule only when there is a showing of no factual basis for the rule?




2 points

Question 32

  1. What is the enactment by Congress of a statute creating a federal administrative agency called?




2 points

Question 33

  1. The Fair and Accurate Credit Transaction Act attempts to reduce the impact on individuals who are the target of which of the following?




2 points

Question 34

  1. The ________ imposes duties on creditors who wish to extend credit, primarily in the area of making disclosures to potential debtors.




2 points

Question 35

  1. Under certain circumstances, a consumer may be incarcerated for nonpayment of a debt.

2 points

Question 36

  1. The FTC is given wide discretion by the courts in determining when advertising is deceptive.

2 points

Question 37

  1. Congress has not yet been active in generating laws aimed at labeling and packaging.

2 points

Question 38

  1. Congress has enacted legislation designed to prevent debt collectors from acting in an unconscionable fashion when attempting to collect a debt.

2 points

Question 39

  1. The most important regulation associated with the Truth in Lending Act is _______, which mandates certain disclosures be made for credit arrangements.




2 points

Question 40

  1. The Fair Credit Billing Act provides a mechanism for consumers to remedy errors received on which of the following?




2 points

Question 41

  1. The stated goal of federal environmental laws is to create air that is entirely free of all types of smoke.

2 points

Question 42

  1. For recently built industrial plants, the EPA established performance standards based on the ________ control technology capable of restraining the extent of pollution in the air.




2 points

Question 43

  1. A government permit that allows an industrial polluter to discharge limited amounts of pollutants into navigable waters is a ________.




2 points

Question 44

  1. Under the Clean Air Act, standards applied in areas where air is clean can be different from those standards applied in regions where air quality is poor.

2 points

Question 45

  1. A manifest system is created under the RCRA to track the entire life of toxic waste.

2 points

Question 46

  1. The EPA is the only federal regulatory agency devoted to environmental protection.

2 points

Question 47

  1. The Clean Water Act applies to navigable waters and where waste products are released from a non-point source.

2 points

Question 48

  1. The EPA may regulate, but it is not authorized to assess penalties for polluters who fail to meet emission limits.

2 points

Question 49

  1. In the case of Grabowski v. Skeechers, Inc, the test that Skeechers use for its claims was faulty because:





2 points

Question 50

  1. Cruise ship passengers produce about a ton of garbage a day.

2 points

Question 51

  1. I have neither received or given any assistence either to or from any third party concerning the content or answers prior to or after the completion of this exam.