Your textbook discusses Stanley Milgram’s famous social psychology experiment, Obedience to Authority. Watch this video clip, which contains some of the original footage of Milgram’s experiment:
For this assignment, please answer the following four questions…..
What did Milgram find out?
What were the ethical implications?
How can Milgram’s findings be applied?
Any comments/impressions about this research?
Choice 2:
The area of social psychology is very broad with many experiments. One famous experiment is the Stanford Prison Experiment conducted by Philip Zimbardo.
View the video trailer for the Stanford Prison Experiment documentary
Finally, go to the slide show on the Stanford Prison Experiment .
After going through the slides (it is somewhat lengthy):
Please go to: http://www.prisonexp.org/discussion-questions and select a discussion question to answer. Please try to answer a question that is different from your classmates.
Also, please answer the following two questions:
What are some of the ethical implications of the study?
What are your thoughts about whether or not this study should have been conducted?
Spanish plantations where enslaved Indians labored
Question 2. Question :
(TCO 1) The Jamestown colony was established by
a joint-stock company.
religious dissenters.
English missionaries.
an aristocratic explorer.
Question 3. Question :
(TCO 1) What made Rhode Island unique?
Religious dissenters founded the colony.
Colonists bought the land from Native Americans.
Suspected witches were tried and executed there.
Colonists agreed to separate church and state.
Question 4. Question :
(TCO 4) Why did English immigration to the colonies drop dramatically after 1660?
The English were no longer sought after as indentured servants.
The political turmoil in England kept them close to home.
The English economy improved and political and religious conflict diminished.
The English were opposed to the growing slave trade in the colonies.
Question 5. Question :
(TCO 2) What happened in the colonies as a result of the Glorious Revolution in England?
England adopted a policy of salutary neglect.
The dominion of New England was established.
England enacted the Navigation Acts.
The colonies profited from the new trade regulations.
Question 6. Question :
(TCO 2) To protest British taxes, colonists often organized boycotts to
destroy British property.
stop buying British goods.
attack British officials.
seize British food supplies.
Question 7. Question :
(TCO 2) The Battle of Lexington was part of a strategy by the British to suppress the colonists by
disarming the militia.
blockading ports.
capturing Patrick Henry.
laying siege to Boston.
Question 8. Question :
(TCO 2) Which is an advantage the British had over the Patriots at the beginning of the war?
The British people believed more passionately in the war.
The British army respected the people they were fighting.
The British government was more established.
The British king had a brilliant military mind.
Question 9. Question :
(TCO 9) Why was it difficult to make changes to the Articles of Confederation?
An amendment required approval by all 13 states.
The Articles did not provide for amending the constitution.
Two thirds of the delegates had to agree in order to amend the Articles.
The states had to convene a special committee to revise the Articles.
Question 10. Question :
(TCO 1) Which of the following most closely preserved the government of the Articles of Confederation?
Virginia Plan
New Jersey Plan
Connecticut Compromise
Great Compromise
Question 11. Question :
(TCOs 1 and 2) Identify and describe the main provisions of the Articles of Confederation. Then identify and discuss the main weaknesses of the Articles and the so-called Western Problem. Make sure you use enough details to support your answer.
Subject: General Questions / General General Questions
Question
1.Lisa and Luis, ages 43 and 38, are married and file a joint return. In addition to having FOUR dependent children (Yandra, Kayanna, Niosha and Lisbec), Lisa and Luis have adjusted gross income (“AGI”) of $90,000 and itemized deductions of $22,000. What is their taxable income for 2014?
a. $44,300
b. $52,200
c. $68,000
d. $90,000
2.In 2014, Andrew, age 17, had $1,000 of interest from a certificate of deposit and $4,000 from working as a waiter. Assume Andrew is claimed by his parents as a dependent. What is Andrew’s standard deduction?
a. $6,200
b. $4,350
c. $1,000
d. $0
3. What is Mercedes’s Taxable Income for 2014? Assume she is 34 years old and is single and has no dependents. Assume further that Mercedes’s AGI is $88,000 and that she made a charitable contribution of $250 (which would be her only itemized deduction).
a. $77,850
b. $81,800
c. $87,750
d. $88,000
4.What is Lydia’s taxable income for 2014? Assume she is single and claimed TWO dependent children, Jason and Cesar. Assume further that Lydia’s AGI is $60,000 and that her itemized deductions are $13,000.
a. $35,150
b. $39,100
c. $47,000
d. $60,000
5.A few years ago, Frank and Felix formed a partnership called “F&F.” Which of the following is most likely TRUE regarding the U.S. income taxation of Frank, Felix and F&F?
a. The F&F entity is NOT required to file an informational tax return
b. The F&F entity will most likely be taxed like a corporation
c. The F&F entity is NOT required to pay federal income taxes
d. Felix and Frank will NOT be required to pay taxes on their respective shares of F&F’s income until F&F actually distributes the earnings to them
6. Which doctrine will most likely prevent Natasha from reducing her tax liability by voluntarily assigning her income to another taxpayer?
a. The constructive receipt doctrine
b. The economic benefit doctrine
c. The fruit-of-the-tree doctrine
d. None of the above
7. During 2014, Fredrick was supported by his three wealthy CPA daughters, in the following percentages:
Flo: 25.0%
Lisa: 31.0%
Parveen: 11.0%
Which daughter is UNABLE to claim Fredrick as a dependent, even if a multiple support agreement is in place and the other daughters agree NOT to claim Fredrick as a dependent?
a. Flo
b. Lisa
c. Parveen
d. Each daughter would be eligible to claim Fredrick as a dependent
8. On January 1, 2014, Peter signed a THREE year lease to rent office space from Paula. The lease commenced immediately on January 1, 2014. During 2014, Peter paid Paula, $24,000 for the first year’s rent, $2,000 for the last month’s rent, and $2,000 as a security deposit. Peter and Paula agree that the security deposit will NOT be returned by Paula at the end of the lease. How much gross income should Paula report for 2014 as a result of these items?
a. $72,000
b. $28,000
c. $26,000
d. $24,000
9. What is Andrew’s taxable income for 2014? Assume Andrew is 54 years old and is single and has no dependents. Assume further that Andrew’s 2014 AGI is $55,000 and that he has no itemized deductions.
a. $55,000
b. $51,050
c. $48,800
d. $44,850
10. Markus, a single taxpayer, had 2014 wages of $72,000 from his job at Big Company, Inc. What is Markus’s AGI if he has the following (and only the following) additional items in 2014?
? Itemized deductions of $15,000
? Exemption amount of $3,950
? Alimony of $10,000 received by Markus (from his former spouse, Maria)
? Business income of $10,000 from Markus’s sole proprietorship
Ignore any deduction that may relate to self-employment taxes.
a. $92,000
b. $88,000
c. $73,050
d. $72,000
Subject: General Questions / General General Questions
Question
NR443 Week 1 Discussion Latest 2017 April
Determinants of Health (graded)
What are some factors that make some people healthy and others ill? Healthy People 2020 identifies five determinants of health that influence the health of individuals and populations. Healthy People 2020 describes them as “a range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status” (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2014, About Determinants of Health, para. 1). Determinants fall into five categories including: (a) policy making, (b) social factors, (c) health services, (d) individual behavior, and (e) biology and genetics.
Go to the “Determinants of Health” link at http://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health and click on each determinant to read about them.
Choose one of the five determinants. In your post, describe this determinant and its importance.
Discuss how this determinant relates to one intervention from the Public Health Intervention Wheel (Nies & McEwen, 2015, pp. 14–15).
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. (2016). Healthy People 2020: About Determinants of Health. Retrieved from http://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health
NR443 Week 2 Discussion Latest 2017 April
Demographic and Epidemiological Assessment (graded)
For this discussion, you will collect assessment data about your city or county. This post will include information about demographics (general characteristics) and epidemiological data (disease or health behavior rates) of your community.
Demographic data: Go online to the U.S. Census Bureau at https://www.census.gov/quickfacts/. Obtain a range information about the demographic characteristics of the population for your city or county of residence. You may have to look at county data if your city is not listed. Discuss demographic data about age, ethnicity, poverty levels, housing, and education.
Epidemiological data: Go to your city or county health department website (search the Internet) or County Health Rankings (http://www.countyhealthrankings.org/) and report epidemiological data about your area.
Identify several priority health concerns for your area.
Here is a helpful tip sheet about the U.S. Census website located in Course Resources that will assist you in using this website as a resource.
Nies, M. A., & McEwen, M. (2015). Community/Public health nursing: Promoting the health of populations (6th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Saunders/Elsevier
NR443 Week 3 Discussion Latest 2017 April
Caring for Vulnerable Populations (graded)
Review the Week 3 Case Study that is found in Course Resources. This case study focuses on a vulnerable young woman who is facing many risk factors.
Discuss several risk factors that may impact health outcomes for vulnerable populations.
Assurance is one of the three core functions of public health. Find a resource in your community (other than WIC) that could assist Mary during her pregnancy. Start by searching the Internet for your local health department’s website. What services does it provide for pregnant women, those living in poverty, or those with mental health concerns? What about your local welfare office? Does it provide prenatal or mental health services? Are there any service organizations, crisis pregnancy centers, or churches providing help for pregnant women or those experiencing mental health concerns? (The Internet, your local newspaper, and the telephone book may also help you locate resources.)
Briefly describe the types of services that you found.
Choose one agency and assess this agency in terms of the 4 A’s. Is it accessible, acceptable, affordable, or available for Mary or other pregnant women that you case manage?
Are there adequate resources for other vulnerable populations in your community?
NR443 Week 4 Discussion Latest 2017 April
Healthy People Objectives for Community Settings (graded)
Community health nurses practice in a variety of settings. Choose one of the following CH roles and describe what you have learned about the nurses’ role in that setting (see Chapters 29–33).
School nursing
Occupational health nursing
Faith-based or parish nursing
Home health nursing
Hospice nursing
Forensic nursing
Correctional nursing
The federal government developed Healthy People as a set of national health objectives that are revised every 10 years. These objectives are very specific in order to guide and measure our nation’s progress related to public health. Please visit http://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/topicsobjectives2020/. Click on a topic area that relates to a role you chose to discuss. Click on the green Objectives tab in that topic area to choose one Healthy People 2020 objective.
Discuss one specific, numbered Healthy People 2020 objective (not a goal) related to this community health role.
How could a community health nurse help meet this objective?
In Course Resources there is a helpful “Introduction to Healthy People 2020 website” document to aid you in navigating the HP 2020 website.
Nies, M. A., & McEwen, M. (2015). Community/Public health nursing: Promoting the health of populations (6th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Saunders/Elsevier.
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. (2016). Healthy People 2020: Topics & Objectives. Retrieved from http://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/topicsobjectives2020/
NR443 Week 5 Discussion Latest 2017 April
Disaster and Communicable Disease Preparedness (graded)
Preparing for disasters, terrorist threats, or communicable disease outbreaks is an important part of public health nursing. Visit the websites http://www.ready.gov and http://www.ready.gov/pandemic. Review the steps for being prepared for a disaster or pandemic.
Choose a natural or man-made disaster that could impact your community and discuss how a CHN can help the community to prepare or respond to this disaster.
Choose a potential infectious disease outbreak and discuss how a CHN can help to prevent or respond to an outbreak.
How well is your community prepared for a potential outbreak or disaster?
Federal Emergency Management Agency. (2016). Ready: Prepare. Plan. Stay Informed. Retrieved from http://www.ready.gov/.
Federal Emergency Management Agency. (2016). Pandemic. Retrieved from http://www.ready.gov/pandemic.
NR443 Week 6 Discussion Latest 2017 April
Environmental Health (graded)
Visit the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency’s MyEnvironment site at http://www.epa.gov/myenvironment and enter your city and state, ZIP code, or location into the location box. Explore the site to learn more about your environment and things that might be impacting the health of its citizens.
Identify something new you learned about your environment and how it could be affecting health by completing this statement: “I didn’t know _____.”
How could you, in the role of a community health nurse, address these concerns?
Optional: For more environmental health information, you can also visit the following websites.
Environmental health tracking: http://ephtracking.cdc.gov/InfoByLocation/
The Affordable Care Act is a controversial topic, and there probably are many different viewpoints represented in our class. For this discussion, let’s start by focus on understanding the basics of the Healthcare Marketplace so that we can provide accurate information to our patients and communities. Please explore the healthcare marketplace website at https://www.healthcare.gov/. Choose the Get Answers tab toward the top of the page.
Review several of the topics in this tab and share two things that you learned about how the marketplace works.
How does this information apply to those in your community?
As a healthcare provider, has this raised any ethical questions or concerns for you?
NR443 Week 8 Discussion Latest 2017 April
Future Directions (graded)
Reflect on what you have learned in this course.
What future concerns are likely to impact public health?
How do you see global health concerns impacting your community?
How can you apply what you have learned in this course to your current practice?
What type of accounting information might be useful to the marketing manager of a business? Why?
Please note that there are two separate parts to this first assignment. You need to tell us what type of information and then tell us why.
Before you respond to this first assignment, please make sure that you thoroughly review the grading rubric that is used for grading these. Note the need for use of our text and, for maximum points, the use of 2 outside sources.
Now assume that your annual salary = 19 x $11,200 and that the bank you want to
borrow from, has determined that it will lend you,
loan amount= your annual salary x 3.0 =
interest rate = 19 x 0.55%
Assume that you will borrow for 30 years and you will make monthly payments at the
end of each month.
A) Calculate your monthly payment (Type your calculator inputs, i.e. N=, PV= and so on) B) Calculate the total interest amount you will pay over the life of the loan C) Fill in (type) the missing values in the amortization table below based on your payment found in A. Accuracy should be
six decimals, so use Excel to construct it.
D)
E) Month F) Beginning
Balance G) Payment H) Interest
payment I) Principal
Payment J) Ending
Balance K)
0 25 L) M) N) O) P) Q)
1 25 R) S) T) U) V) W)
2 25 X) Y) Z) AA) AB) AC)
3 25 AD) AE) AF) AG) AH) AI)
4 25 AJ) AK) AL) AM) AN) AO)
AP) Interest payment = monthly interest rate x beginning balance AQ) Principal payment = payment- interest payment AR) Ending balance = beginning balance – principal payment 2 AS) Beginning balance for period 1 is the amount borrowed, for all other periods it is the ending balance of the
previous period. 3 AT)
2nd Question – Stock Classifications
AU)
AV)
Identify all the following stocks as overpriced, underpriced or fairly valued. For
all calculations assume a market risk premium of 5 % and a risk free rate of 3%. Show all
your calculations.
AW)
AX)
AY)
BA)
BB)
Stock classification
Sto
E(
?i
BC)
(over, under or fairly valued)
c
R
k
i
)
AZ)
(%)
BD)
BE)
BF)
BG)
A
7.1
3
5
BH)
BI) 1
BJ) 1.7
BK)
B
2
.
0
8
BL)
BM)
BN)
BO)
C
5.3
1
BP)
BQ)
BR)
BS)
D
9
1.2
BT)
BU)
BV)
BW)
BX)
BY) 4
Question 1.1. (TCO 4) The Spanish who settled in Florida and New Mexico were primarily (Points : 2)
conquistadors.
merchants.
missionaries.
plantation owners.
Type: MC
Question 2.2. (TCO 1) The Jamestown colony was established by (Points : 2)
a joint-stock company.
religious dissenters.
English missionaries.
an aristocratic explorer.
Type: MC
Question 3.3. (TCO 4) Why did English immigration to the colonies drop dramatically after 1660? (Points : 2)
The English were no longer sought after as indentured servants.
The political turmoil in England kept them close to home.
The English economy improved and political and religious conflict diminished.
The English were opposed to the growing slave trade in the colonies.
Type: MC
Question 4.4. (TCO 4) The French and Indian War was also called (Points : 2)
King George’s War.
Seven Years’ War.
Pontiac’s Rebellion.
the Pequot War.
Type: MC
Question 5.5. (TCO 2) At the First Continental Congress, delegates, such as Patrick Henry and John Adams, encouraged colonists to think of themselves as (Points : 2)
Americans.
Britons.
Virginians.
New Englanders.
Type: MC
Question 6.6. (TCO 2) The Battle of Lexington was part of a strategy by the British to suppress the colonists by (Points : 2)
disarming the militia.
blockading ports.
capturing Patrick Henry.
laying siege to Boston.
Type: MC
Question 7.7. (TCO 2) The Patriots would not have won the Battle of Yorktown and the American Revolution without help from (Points : 2)
Spanish explorers.
Germans.
the French.
Native Americans.
Type: MC
Question 8.8. (TCO 1) Why was it difficult to make changes to the Articles of Confederation? (Points : 2)
An amendment required approval by all 13 states.
The Articles did not provide for amending the constitution.
Why was it difficult to make changes to the Articles of Confederation? (Points : 2)
An amendment required approval by all 13 states.
The Articles did not provide for amending the constitution.
Two thirds of the delegates had to agree in order to amend the Articles.
The states had to convene a special committee to revise the Articles. The states had to convene a special committee to revise the Articles.
Type: MC
Question 9.9. (TCO 1) Which of the following most closely preserved the government of the Articles of Confederation? (Points : 2)
Virginia Plan
New Jersey Plan
Connecticut Compromise
Great Compromise
Type: MC
Question 10.10. (TCO 3) The assertion that states the right to disobey federal law was called (Points : 2)
filibuster.
Calhounism.
anti-Jacksonism.
nullification.
Type: MC
Question 11.11. (TCO 3) In the early 19th century, the largest source of European immigration came from (Points : 2)
Germany.
Poland.
England.
Ireland.
Type: MC
Question 12.12. (TCO 3) Cotton production was especially intensive in that part of the South referred to as (Points : 2)
The Black Belt.
The Cotton Belt.
The Sun Belt.
The Slave Belt.
Type: MC
Question 13.13. (TCO 3) James Polk (Points : 2)
opposed the annexation of Texas.
purchased Texas from Mexico.
favored the annexation of Texas.
was the only governor to serve two terms in Texas.
Type: MC
Question 14.14. (TCO 2) The Fugitive Slave Act adopted in 1850 required private citizens to assist (Points : 2)
with apprehending runaway slaves.
required private citizens to help runaway slaves escape.
Question 16.16. (TCO 8) One advantage the South had over the North was that southerners believed (Points : 2)
that slavery was not that important.
one southerner could whip 10 Yankees.
that the North lacked the courage to fight.
deeply in Lincoln’s ability to avoid war.
Type: MC
Question 17.17. (TCO 8) Why did President Lincoln want Grant commanding the Union army after the Battle of Gettysburg? (Points : 2)
He wanted to give Grant a chance to prove himself.
He knew victory required the destruction of the Confederate Army and its source of supplies.
He had heard that Grant had recruited more Union troops.
He thought the South would surrender.
Type: MC
Question 18.18. (TCO 10) Many immigrants came to the U.S. to avoid (Points : 2)
inexpensive land.
political revolutions.
religious freedom.
plentiful employment.
Type: MC
Question 19.19. (TCO 10) How did the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory fire affect industrial reforms? (Points : 2)
Managers began locking the exits of factories.
Progressives began to focus on other areas for reforms.
Congress passed laws that increased the work day to 12 hours.
Cities and states began passing laws to make workplaces safer.
Type: MC
Question 20.20. (TCO 7) The invasion of Belgium turned American opinion against Germany because (Points : 2)
many Americans were immigrants from Belgium.
Americans depended on products imported from Belgium.
Belgium was an important U.S. ally.
Belgium was a neutral nation.
Type: MC
Question 21.21. (TCO 7) Which nation was forced to pay reparations after World War I? (Points : 2)
France
Germany
Great Britain
the United States
Type: MC
Question 22.22. (TCO 11) During the 1920s, the stock market (Points : 2)
rose sharply.
leveled off.
declined sharply.
became obsolete.
Type: MC
Question 23.23. (TCO 11) Which President was named Silent Cal? (Points : 2)
Herbert Hoover
Woodrow Wilson
Warren G. Harding
Calvin Coolidge
Type: MC
Question 24.24. (TCO 11) Which economic factors led to the Great Depression? (Points : 2)
Underproduction, disparity of wealth, low interest rates, and low stock speculation
Underproduction, high consumption, low interest rates, and high stock speculation
Overproduction, disparity of wealth, limited money supply, and high stock speculation
Overproduction, high consumption, limited money supply, and low stock speculation
Type: MC
Question 25.25. (TCO 7) The three Allied leaders of World War II were (Points : 2)
Stalin, Eisenhower, and Churchill.
Stalin, Hitler, and Mussolini.
Roosevelt, Eisenhower, and Stalin.
Roosevelt, Stalin, and Churchill.
Page: 1 2
Question 1. 1. (TCOs 1 and 2) Identify and describe the main provisions of the Constitution of 1787. Make sure you analyze the compromises made at the convention to ensure the passage of the new federal constitution. Then discuss the formation of America’s first two political parties, the Democratic-Republicans and the Federalists. What were the major differences and who were the best-known members of each party? Make sure you use enough details to support your answer. (Points : 50)
Question 2. 2. (TCO 2) Identify and analyze the main provisions of the Compromise of 1850. Be sure to analyze the problem of California and how this led to the Compromise. Then analyze how the Compromise set off a storm of political controversy between 1849 and 1850. Identify the key players and how they viewed the Compromise. What was the role of President Zachary Taylor in these discussions? Be sure to use enough details to support your answer. (Points : 50)
Question 3. 3. (TCOs 6 and 7) Identify and explain at least two causes of World War II. Then analyze America’s foreign policy before the war, and describe how that policy changed as the war progressed. Be sure to include a discussion of how the Battle of Britain influenced American opinion. Make sure you use enough details to support your answer. (Points : 50)
Question 4. 4. (TCOs 7 and 9) Identify and analyze the main events of the Korean War and Cuban Missile Crisis. Then assess how these events affected the relationship between the United States and the Soviet Union. Make sure you use enough details to support your answer. (Points : 50)
Midterm Exam Assessment – The equilibrium price is represented
Subject: Economics / General Economics
Question
Midterm Exam Assessment
Spring 2017
Introduction to Business
Format: This assessment consists of both multiple choice and True/False questions.
• True/False: 20 questions
• multiple choice: 30 questions
Marks: The total marks for this assessment are out of 100 points. The overall weighing of this assessment is 30% of the course final grade.
Time allowed: 60 minutes
Answer Sheet
1 11 21 31 41
2 12 22 32 42
3 13 23 33 43
4 14 24 34 44
5 15 25 35 45
6 16 26 36 46
7 17 27 37 47
8 18 28 38 48
9 19 29 39 49
10 20 30 40 50
Extra Question 1:
Extra Question 2:
Session 1 True/False Questions
True__v__False____1. The equilibrium price is represented by the point where a product’s supply and demand curves intersect.
True__v__False____2. All business decisions cannot be judged as right or wrong, ethical or unethical.
True____False__v__3. A consistent increase in a country’s imports has a favorable impact on its production and employment.
True____False__v__4. The Webb-Pomerene Export Trade Act allows selected U.S. firms willing to enter international trade to form monopolies to compete with foreign monopolistic organizations and also to operate as monopolies within the United States.
True____False__v__5. Protective tariffs raise the price of foreign goods to allow expensive domestic goods to compete with foreign ones.
True____False____6. A common reason for establishing quotas or tariffs is to encourage dumping.
True____False____7. Political unrest in countries often creates a hostile environment for foreign businesses and can act as a barrier to international trade.
True____False____8. Sociocultural differences, such as variations in body language and personal space, usually have almost negligible impact on international business.
True____False____9. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was a precursor to the World Trade Organization and provided a forum for tariff negotiations.
True____False____10. The World Trade Organization agreements are the optional ground rules for international commerce.
True____False____11. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) effectively united Singapore, Britain, and Japan into one market.
True____False____12. The International Monetary Fund promotes trade among member nations by eliminating trade barriers and fostering financial cooperation.
True____False____13. In most countries, participation in international business is restricted to large corporations.
True____False____14. Licensing allows a company to enter the international marketplace without spending large amounts of money abroad.
True____False____15. A strategic alliance is a partnership formed to create competitive advantage on a worldwide basis.
True____False____16. Direct investment gives lesser power and is the least expensive way to participate in foreign trade.
True____False____17. Multinational corporations (MNCs) are often criticized on the grounds that they adversely affect production in the host countries and also contribute to higher unemployment.
True____False____18. Companies doing business internationally have traditionally used a globalization strategy.
True____False____19. A multinational strategy involves customizing products, promotion, and distribution according to cultural, technological, regional, and national differences.
True____False____20. Even when products are standardized, advertising often has to be modified to adapt to local cultures.
Session 2 Multiple Choice Questions
21. Which of the following is an advantage of a sole proprietorship?
A. It is heavily regulated by the government.
B. It has limited liability for the debts incurred by the business.
C. It is hard to dissolve.
D. It is unaffected by the death or withdrawal of its owner.
E. It is easy and inexpensive to form.
22. Catalina owns a small restaurant and is solely responsible for its debts and liabilities. She is also entitled to all the profits the restaurant makes after paying off taxes and other expenses. Her business is an example of a(n):
A. joint venture.
B. S corporation.
C. sole proprietorship.
D. partnership.
E. C corporation.
23. A _____ has been defined as “an association of two or more persons who carry on as co-owners of a business for profit.”
A. partnership
B. sole proprietorship
C. C corporation
D. cooperative
E. quasi-public corporation
24. Josh has been asked to be a part of a new business venture that develops wind energy technologies. Since the business involves high risk, he does not want to be held completely liable for the firm’s debts if the project fails. In this case, Josh is most likely to prefer to participate as a(n):
A. member of a cooperative.
B. limited partner.
C. general partner.
D. owner of an S corporation.
E. sole proprietor.
25. The decision-making process in a partnership tends to be faster when:
A. there are numerous partners, who all want to solely control the management of the business.
B. there are two partners and both of them are involved in the day-to-day activities of the business.
C. the partnership is a foreign corporation that conducts its business outside the state in which it was incorporated.
D. the partnership is a domestic corporation with numerous partners.
E. there are numerous partners and the firm has issued public stock.
26. Megha is a taekwondo expert who starts her own martial arts training academy. She conducts taekwondo classes for women and teaches them the art of self-defense. Megha can be regarded as a(n):
A. shareholder.
B. entrepreneur.
C. investor.
D. intrapreneur.
E. inventor.
27. The _____ style of leadership can be a powerful motivator because it demonstrates a great deal of trust and confidence in an employee and allows employees to meet their work demands with little or no interference.
A. free-rein
B. autocratic
C. authoritarian
D. repressive
E. totalitarian
28. Salma owns a Lebanese restaurant that employs around 25 people. She is solely responsible for the management of the restaurant. Her business has to compete with a larger chain of restaurants that offer the same cuisine. Salma’s restaurant can be classified as a:
A. multinational corporation.
B. conglomerate.
C. franchise.
D. public sector holding.
E. small business.
29. Which of the following is an advantage of small businesses over larger firms?
A. Unlike larger firms, small businesses can quickly make and execute business decisions.
B. Unlike larger firms, small businesses have access to a diverse and large workforce.
C. Unlike larger firms, small businesses are not required to pay any taxes.
D. Small businesses are better equipped than larger businesses to cope with growth.
E. Small businesses have better access to highly trained and competent staff than larger firms.
30. A precise statement of the rationale for a business and a step-by-step explanation of how it will achieve its goals is known as a(n) _____.
A. promissory note
B. article of incorporation
C. business plan
D. business agreement
E. article of partnership
31. To make profits from a small business, the owner must first provide or obtain _____ to start the business and keep it running smoothly.
A. products
B. employees
C. profits
D. supplies
E. capital
32. The act of financing one’s business by using real personal assets is known as:
A. debt financing.
B. factoring.
C. franchising.
D. equity financing.
E. bootlegging.
33. Persons or organizations that agree to provide some funds for a new business in exchange for ownership interest or stock are called _____.
A. entrepreneurs
B. category captains
C. venture capitalists
D. trade debtors
E. franchisers
34. When an entrepreneur takes out a loan from a bank, the bank will require him or her to put up _____, a financial interest in the property or fixtures of the business, to guarantee payment of the loan.
A. collateral
B. venture capital
C. trade credit
D. business plan
E. cash flow statement
35. Banks and other financial institutions can grant a small business a _____, which is an agreement by which a financial institution promises to lend a business a predetermined sum on demand.
A. line of credit
B. trade credit
C. mutual fund
D. non-recourse loan
E. trust fund
36. Which of the following is one of the commonly reported advantages of franchising?
A. Flexibility in decision making
B. No restrictions on purchasing
C. Management training and support
D. No standardized procedures of operations
E. Decentralized buying power
37. Which of the following statements is true of authentic leaders?
A. Authentic leaders display all the characteristics of autocratic leaders.
B. Authentic leaders make all the relevant decisions and inform employees what they have to do and how.
C. Authentic leaders are an exclusive group of leaders whose leadership behaviors are distinctive from democratic and free-rein leaders.
D. Authentic leaders are identified by the way in which they conduct themselves with stakeholders.
E. Authentic leaders are concerned about the task at hand rather than establishing lasting relationships with stakeholders.
38. If a manager is concerned about doing the work in such a manner that it yields the desired result, then his or her primary managerial concern is:
A. efficiency.
B. effectiveness.
C. standardization.
D. innovation.
E. expertise.
39. Lara was less educationally qualified and experienced than her colleagues when she joined Aurora Systems Inc. However, due to her ability to negotiate effectively with clients, convince her team members to work harder, and understand their needs, she is a senior-level manager today. Which of the following skills can be most attributed to Lara’s success in this scenario?
A. Technical skills
B. Cognitive skills
C. Human relations skills
D. Critical thinking skills
E. Psychomotor skills
40. Melanie is one of the senior managers in the consumer electronics department of a large company. She is part of a team that determines the objectives of the department based on future trends in the industry and decides how to accomplish them. Melanie is involved in the management function of:
A. staffing.
B. recruiting.
C. planning.
D. crowdsourcing.
E. factoring.
41. Managers at Sprocket Inc. have recognized declining sales on their water purifier and must decide upon what has to be done to improve it. Which of the following would be their next step?
A. Defining the situation
B. Developing options
C. Analyzing options
D. Selecting the best option
E. Implementing the decision
42. A declaration of an organization’s fundamental purpose and basic philosophy is known as a(n):
A. protocol.
B. mission.
C. referendum.
D. agenda.
E. target.
43. The top management of Dusk Automobiles Inc. has decided that the company’s objective for the next two years will be to expand the overall business internationally. This is an example of _____.
A. functional planning
B. static planning
C. strategic planning
D. tactical planning
E. operational planning
44. Tactical plans usually cover a period of:
A. five years or more.
B. one year or less.
C. three years.
D. one week or less.
E. ten years.
45. _____ are very short-term plans that specify what actions individuals, work groups, or departments need to accomplish in order to achieve an organization’s tactical plan and ultimately the strategic plan.
A. Operational plans
B. Protocols
C. Static plans
D. Referendums
E. Executive-level plans
46. _____ is an element in planning that deals with potential disasters such as product tampering, oil spills, fire, earthquake, computer viruses, or airplane crash.
A. Supply chain management
B. Crisis management
C. Value chain management
D. Enterprise resource planning
E. Material requirements planning
47. Which of the following statements is true of the management function of organizing?
A. Organizing is the process of evaluating and correcting activities to keep a business on course.
B. Organizing involves determining and administering appropriate rewards and recognition for employees in an organization.
C. Organizing is a management function that leads to the duplication of resources.
D. Organizing is the last step in the process of managing a business.
E. Organizing helps create synergy, whereby the effect of a whole system equals more than that of its parts.
48. Maria and Harold have just finished interviewing four candidates for a job position in Jackson Office Supplies Inc., a large company based in Houston. In which of the following management functions are Maria and Harold involved?
A. Downsizing
B. Benchmarking
C. Staffing
D. Controlling
E. Directing
49. When Betsy informed her supervisor that the furniture assemblers at their manufacturing plant were using 20 percent more raw materials in the current month when compared to the preceding months, she was involved in the management function of:
A. planning.
B. structuring.
C. staffing.
D. controlling.
E. benchmarking.
50. In businesses, _____ include the president and other top executives, such as the chief executive officer, chief financial officer, and chief operations officer, who have overall responsibility for an organization.
A. first-line managers
B. top managers
C. trade creditors
D. external auditors
E. middle managers
Extra question 1.
Which of the following has been a recent trend with regard to the different levels of management within an organization?
A. With technological advances accelerating, the role of privacy officers has declined within organizations.
B. The top management of most organizations spends most of its time directing and controlling workers’ daily performance on the job.
C. Effective managers at enlightened corporations have found that diversity is detrimental for workers and for the bottom line.
D. The ranks of middle managers have been shrinking as more and more companies downsize to be more productive.
E. Most stakeholders support the perks and special treatment the top management of an organization gets.
Extra question 2.
Janet works as a manager at Unicorn Infra Inc. Janet and her team members are primarily responsible for procuring the funds needed for the successful operation of the organization and investing that money to pursue organizational goals. Thus, Janet is a _____.
ECON 402 – One USD bought 26 Russian rubles in March
Subject: Economics / General Economics
Question
Econ 402, Winter 2017
Lecture 19 review questions
1. One USD bought 26 Russian rubles in March 2007 and 56 Russian rubles in March 2017.
Calculate the annual appreciation rate of USD against the Russian ruble. Assuming interest
rate parity (IRP) holds, what should be the average difference in risk-adjusted nominal interests
between the two countries?
2. Suppose that a foreign country has restrictions on capital flows to/from abroad. Which
approach would be more appropriate for forecasting this country’s future exchange rate:
purchasing power parity (PPP) or IRP? Explain your reasoning.
3. What are some of the reasons for a small open economy to pursue a fixed exchange rate policy
with the US dollar? Give examples.
4. Currently, 10-year US Treasury bonds pay an annual interest rate of 1%, 10-year bonds of the
State of New Jersey pay 2.5%, and 10-year bonds of the State of Illinois pay 3.5%. How do
you explain this difference through interest rate parity? Assuming that US Treasury bonds are
safe (0% chance of default), can you estimate the chances of default within a year in Illinois
and in New Jersey?
5. What are the endogenous variables in the Fleming-Mundell model when prices are fixed in the
short run?
6. Why is the ? line in the Fleming-Mundell model vertical rather than upward-sloping? 7. In the Fleming-Mundell model, the ? line relates which two endogenous variables? 8. Suppose that the government is considering putting a restriction on flows of capital in/out of
the country. Then, after the policy is implemented, the interest rate will _____ if the country’s
current account is _____. Draw a diagram illustrating your reasoning.
a) rise, positive
b) fall, positive
c) fall, negative
9. How is the equilibrium real exchange rate determined in an open economy with restricted
capital flows? How is the equilibrium interest rate determined an open economy with restricted
capital flows? Draw diagrams showing your reasoning.
10. According to the Fleming-Mundell model, what is the relation between government
expenditure and nominal exchange rate in the short run? Draw a diagram to illustrate your
reasoning.
11. Consider a small open economy described by the Fleming-Mundell model. Suppose that the
government pursues a fixed exchange rate policy. How can this policy be implemented with
changes in money supply? Draw a diagram showing how money supply is determined under
fixed nominal exchange rate regime. 12. Would a fixed exchange rate regime make sense for the US? Why or why not? Explain. Page 1 of 1
Subject: Communications / General CommunicationsQuestion
Unit 1 quiz
Question 1
Using jargon or complex terms can contribute to _____________________ noise.
Answers:
a.
Semantic
b.
Psychological
c.
Physiological
d.
Physical
Question 2
_____________________is the verbal and nonverbal communication that takes place between two interdependent people.
Answers:
a.
Intrapersonal
b.
Punctuation
c.
Interpersonal communication
d.
Self-disclosure
Question 3
Which of the following examples of communication falls on the most impersonal side of the continuum?
Answers:
a.
a cashier and customer talking
b.
a supervisor and employee talking
c.
a mother and daughter talking
d.
two neighbors talking
Question 4
____________________ refers to the act of producing messages, whereas _____________________ is the act of understanding them.
Answers:
a.
Person-focused, message-focused
b.
Source, receiver
c.
Feedfoward, feedback
d.
Encoding, decoding
Question 5
In a _____________________ relationship, the two individuals mirror each other.
Answers:
a.
Dyadic
b.
Symmetrical
c.
Convergent
d.
Complementary
Question 6
Which of the following is an example of feedback?
Answers:
a.
Trying to understand a nonverbal gesture
b.
Yawning when an instructor is lecturing
c.
Being confused by an unfamiliar word in a lecture
d.
Deciding how to phrase a question
Question 7
All of the following are true about the transactional process of interpersonal communication EXCEPT:
Answers:
a.
The elements are interdependent.
b.
It’s always changing.
c.
It’s a linear process.
d.
Each person acts as a speaker and a listener.
Question 8
The principle of _____________________ states that messages often have more than one meaning.
Answers:
a.
Irreversibility
b.
Unrepeatability
c.
Punctuation
d.
Ambiguity
Question 9 “You never get a second chance to make a first impression” exemplifies the principle of
Answers:
a.
Inevitability
b.
Unrepeatability
c.
Irreversibility
d.
Ambiguity
Question 10
Sally Ann had a bad cell phone connection and couldn’t understand the directions her friend was trying to tell her. This is an example of __________ noise.
Answers:
a.
Physical
b.
Semantic
c.
Physiological
d.
Psychological
Unit 2 quiz
Question 1______________________ is the relatively specialized lifestyle of a group of people.
Answers:
a.
Culture
b.
Race
c.
Religion
d.
Nationality
Question 2
All of the following exemplify an individualistic culture EXCEPT
Answers:
a.
the lone ranger, riding into the sunset.
b.
“looking out for number one.”
c.
“there is no ‘I’ in ‘team’.”
d.
the “me generation.”
Question 3
0 out of 10 points
In
In a ______________________ culture, such as ______________________, both men and women are encouraged to be modest and oriented to maintaining quality of life.
Answers:
a.
masculine, Japan
b.
feminine, Norway
c.
feminine, the United States
d.
masculine, the United States
Question 4
In a(n) ______________________ culture, members are responsible for the entire group.
Answers:
a.
high-power-distance
b.
masculine
c.
individualistic
d.
collectivist
Question 5
According to ______________________, speakers make their communication styles similar to listeners’ to gain their approval and achieve greater efficiency.
Answers:
a.
the Linguistic Relativity Hypothesis
b.
communication accommodation theory
c.
cultural sensitivity
d.
the principle of adjustment
Question 6
A commitment to the ways and beliefs of your culture is termed
Answers:
a.
culture
b.
cultural sensitivity
c.
enculturation
d.
ethnic identity
Question 7
Seeing your own culture as inherently better than other cultures is termed
Answers:
a.
ethnocentrism
b.
acculturation
c.
enculturation
d.
stereotyping
Question 8
C. H. Cooley’s concept of the looking-glass self says that
Answers:
a.
your self-concept develops through looking at the image of yourself that others reveal to you.
b.
significant others learn their self-concepts from your verbal and nonverbal messages.
c.
you compare yourself to persons in groups you are with and see how you measure up.
d.
you interpret and evaluate your own behavior.
Question 9
Which of the following is NOT an influence on the self-concept?
Answers:
a.
others’ image of you
b.
your own interpretations and evaluations
c.
social comparisons
d.
your genetic make-up
Question 10
The extent to which you know yourself accurately is referred to as (the)
Answers:
a.
self-awareness.
b.
self-concept.
c.
self-esteem.
d.
self.
Question 11
Which one of the four selves represents truths about yourself that neither you nor others know?
Answers:
a.
blind self
b.
open self
c.
unknown self
d.
hidden self
Question 12
Which one of the four selves represents information you know about yourself but others do not.
Answers:
a.
blind self
b.
open self
c.
hidden self
d.
unknown self
Question 13
Taylor is very open about his political views and discusses them with anyone who will listen. This is an example of information in his ______________________ self.
Answers:
a.
assertive
b.
open
c.
hidden
d.
blind
Question 14
0 out of 10 points
In
Which of the following is NOT true in regard to self-esteem?
Answers:
a.
When you feel good about yourself you will perform better.
b.
Seeking out nourishing people will enhance your self-esteem
c.
Selecting projects that will result in success will boost your self-esteem.
d.
Setting high standards in all areas will enhance your self-esteem.
Question 15
If you believe you’re going to score an “A” on a test, you may start studying more, which in turn may lead to that high grade. This would exemplify the _____________________
Answers:
a.
self-fulfilling prophecy.
b.
pygmalion effect.
c.
implicit personality theory.
d.
pollyanna effect.
Unit 3 quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is NOT a technique of active listening?
Answers:
a.
using “solution messages,” which help the speaker by giving advice
b.
asking questions
c.
expressing understanding of the speaker’s feelings
d.
paraphrasing the speaker’s meaning
Question 2
In the sentence, “I might be mistaken, but I think you are putting that together ly”, “I might be mistaken” is an example of a(n)
Answers:
a.
hedging.
b.
appeal for the suspense of judgment.
c.
credentialing.
d.
sin license.
Question 3
To _____________________, is to state in your own words what you think the speaker means and feels.
Answers:
a.
empathize
b.
give feedback
c.
back-channel
d.
paraphrase
Question 4
Ron told Kaye, “As a teacher, I have a unique perspective on this issue.” In referring to his special qualifications to speak on a topic, Ron was using ____________.
Answers:
a.
a testimonial.
b.
credentialing.
c.
hedging.
d.
a cognitive disclaimer.
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT true about listening?
Answers:
a.
Speaking is more important than listening.
b.
Effective listeners are more likely to emerge as leaders in their field.
c.
The medical establishment has introduced the practice of “narrative medicine” to reduce malpractice claims.
d.
Listening can communicate power.
Question 6
In the listening process, in which stage do you recall and retain what’s been said?
Answers:
a.
remembering
b.
receiving
c.
evaluating
d.
understanding
Question 7
Based on research, men display the following behaviors EXCEPT:
Answers:
a.
using less eye contact than women.
b.
playing up expertise while talking.
c.
giving more listening cues than women.
d.
being argumentative while listening.
Question 8
The objective description of a word, on which most people would agree, is known as a word’s _____________________.
Answers:
a.
definition
b.
connotation
c.
denotation
d.
dictionary entry
Question 9
A communication pattern in which you ignore a person’s presence and his or her communication is _____________________
Answers:
a.
rejection.
b.
disconfirmation.
c.
indiscrimination.
d.
confirmation.
Question 10
“Policeman” and “fireman” are words that demonstrate
Answers:
a.
polarization.
b.
allness.
c.
ethnocentrism.
d.
sexist language.
Question 11
The _____________________ of a word is its subjective or emotional meaning.
Answers:
a.
formation
b.
identification
c.
denotation
d.
connotation
Question 12
Which of the following messages is most direct?
Answers:
a.
I’m so bored; I have nothing to do tonight.
b.
I’d like to go to the movies. Do you want to go?
c.
You wouldn’t want to go bowling, would you?
d.
Do you feel like eating pizza tonight?
Question 13
All of the following are rules of netiquette EXCEPT
Answers:
a.
avoid flaming, or personally attacking other users.
b.
calling friends while sending an email.
c.
keep from spamming, or sending unsolicited advertisements.
d.
avoid shouting, or TYPING IN ALL CAPS.
Question 14
Saying, “That is a very interesting haircut” instead of saying you don’t like it is an example of what kind of lie?
Answers:
a.
substitution
b.
omission
c.
exaggeration
d.
equivocation
Question 15
Which of the following is an example of ageism?
Answers:
a. using words such as “old fogey” and “little old lady”
b. oversimplying your language when talking to an older person
c. all of the above are examples
d. avoiding direct eye contact with older people
Unit 4 quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is an example of a regulator?
Answers:
a.
raising a hand to speak in class
b.
playing with a pen when anxious
c.
pointing to show where your car is
d.
the “peace sign”
Question 2
Scratching your arm too relieve an itch is an example of what type of body movement?
Answers:
a.
emblem
b.
illustrator
c.
regulator
d.
adaptor
Question 3
_____________________ are substitutes for words.
Answers:
a.
Chronemics
b.
Kinesics
c.
Emblems
d.
Olfactics
Question 4
_____________________ is the study of spatial communication.
Answers:
a.
Chronemics
b.
Kinesics
c.
Haptics
d.
Proxemics
Question 5
Touch may communicate many different meanings including
Answers:
a.
control.
b.
all of the above.
c.
playfulness.
d.
positive emotions.
Question 6
In
The inability to engage in emotional communication is called
Selected Answer:
Ina.
dysphasia.
Answers:
a.
dysphasia.
b.
shyness.
c.
dyssemia.
d.
reticence.
Question 7
Although Arianna has a lot of coworkers and acquaintances, she doesn’t have anyone she can relate to on an intimate level. Arianna is experiencing
Answers:
a.
disconfirmation.
b.
emotional isolation.
c.
emotional contagion.
d.
static evaluation.
Question 8
Which of the following is an example of an emotional appeal?
Answers:
a.
enthusiasm
b.
guilt
c.
pity
d.
all of the above are examples
Question 9
Another term for “emotional intelligence” is
Answers:
a.
emotive competence.
b.
empathy.
c.
interpersonal competence.
d.
social intelligence.
Question 10
According to a study on emotions in the workplace, which of the following is TRUE?
Answers:
a.
Women tend to feel better after crying while men feel worse.
b.
Men were more disapproving of those who cry on the job.
c.
Women and men reported crying on the job in approximately equal amounts.
d.
Women were more disapproving of those who cry on the job.
Question 11
In regard to expressing emotions, “owning feelings” means
Answers:
a.
knowing you can’t influence the emotions of others.
b.
taking control of your negative emotions.
c.
finding the root cause of your emotions.
d.
taking responsibility for your feelings.
Question 12
Kim gets annoyed because her friend Courntey forwards to her every chain e-mail that lands in her inbox. Kim needs to tell Courtney to stop violating the maxim of
Answers:
a.
manner.
b.
quality.
c.
quantity.
d.
relation.
Question 13
“A relatively informal interaction in which the roles of the speaker and hearer are exchanged in a nonautomatic fashion under the collaborative management of all parties” is called
Answers:
a.
maxim of manner.
b.
monologue.
c.
phatic communication.
d.
conversation.
Question 14
When Lacey told her instructor, “I need you to give me a makeup test” she was violating the maxim of
Answers:
a.
tact.
b.
agreement.
c.
generosity.
d.
approbation.
Question 15
According to _______________ theory, you can develop close relationships in both face-to-face and online contexts.
Answers:
a.
social presence
b.
social feedback
c.
social exchange
d.
social information processing
unit 5 quiz
Question 1
Brad doesn’t stop by to see Angelina for a couple of days to see how she will respond. This most likely took place in the _______________ stage of the relationship.
Answers:
a.
contact
b.
bonding
c.
involvement
d.
intimacy
Question 2
According to research, how long does it take us to decide if we want to pursue a relationship?
Answers:
a.
4 days
b.
10 minutes
c.
1 day
d.
4 minutes
Question 3
Justin and Jessica announced their engagement at a party on a Friday night. They are in the ______________ stage of the relationship.
Answers:
a.
intimacy—interpersonal commitment
b.
involvement—intensification
c.
intensifying—testing
d.
intimacy—social bonding
Question 4
The degree of personalness to which you pursue topics is known as
Answers:
a.
relational dialectics theory.
b.
depth.
c.
breadth.
d.
social penetration theory.
Question 5
Sari is a huge fan of comedian and actor Chris Rock. She follows him on Twitter and Facebook, watches all his movies and has even written him letters. Sari has a(n) ______________ relationship with him.
Answers:
a.
friendship
b.
parasocial
c.
acquaintance
d.
pseudo-intimate
Question 6
When a relationship deteriorates, the breadth and depth often reverse themselves, a process known as _____________________
Answers:
a.
relationship deterioration.
b.
depenetration.
c.
dissolution.
d.
intrapersonal dissatisfaction.
Question 7
Barbie and Ken have been acting awkwardly around each other lately. They’ve both noticed a lot more conflict and they haven’t been spending as much time together like they used to. Barbie and Ken are in the ______________ stage.
Answers:
a.
deterioration
b.
disintegration
c.
dissolution
d.
avoidance
Question 8
In the ____________ stage of relationships, you begin to share each other’s social networks.
Answers:
a.
involvement
b.
intimacy
c.
contact
d.
repair
Question 9
The number of topics about which individuals communicate is
Answers:
a.
social penetration.
b.
width.
c.
breadth.
d.
depth.
Question 10
The first stage of deterioration is
Answers:
a.
interpersonal dissatisfaction.
b.
intrapersonal dissatisfaction.
c.
communication depenetration.
d.
interpersonal deterioration.
Question 11
A theory concerned with relationship development from the superficial to the intimate levels and from few to many areas of interpersonal interaction is
Answers:
a.
social penetration.
b.
relational bonding maxim.
c.
relational dialectics theory.
d.
interpersonal bonding.
Question 12
In ____________ stage, ex-partners begin to look upon themselves as individuals rather than halves of the pair.
Answers:
a.
interpersonal dissatisfaction
b.
dissolution
c.
deterioration
d.
testing
Question 13
An analysis of the costs and rewards in a relationship take place in the _________________ theory of relationships.
Answers:
a.
attraction
b.
rules
c.
social exchange
d.
social penetration
Question 14
____________ theory claims that you develop and maintain relationships in which the ratio of your rewards relative to the costs is approximately equal to your partner’s.
Answers:
a.
Social exchange
b.
Attraction
c.
Social penetration
d.
Equity
Question 15
Which of the following is NOT an example of a cost in a relationship?
Answers:
a.
paying for dinner
b.
listening to a typoe of music which you strongly dislike
c.
giving up time with friends
d.
all of the above could be considered costs
unit 6 quiz
Question 1
An interpersonal relationship between two interdependent people that is mutually productive and characterized by mutual positive regard is a
Answers:
a.
mentoring relationship.
b.
workplace romance.
c.
romantic relationship.
d.
friendship.
Question 2
In the friendship of _____________________, the relationship is transitory—the kind we have with classmates and neighbors—cordial but not intense.
Answers:
a.
association
b.
acquaintance
c.
reciprocity
d.
receptivity
Question 3
In their relationship, Pat and Kris eat their meals together, present themselves to others as a unified couple, and seldom if ever have sex-role conflicts with regard to their relationship. They exemplify
Answers:
a.
interdependents.
b.
independents.
c.
traditionals.
d.
separates.
Question 4
This type of love is compassionate and selfless.
Answers:
a.
pragma
b.
agape
c.
ludus
d.
storge
Question 5
A relationship where an experienced individual helps train a less experienced person is a ______________ relationship.
Answers:
a.
pragmatic
b.
reciprocal
c.
networking
d.
mentoring
Question 6
Will and Jada are very compatible. They each have qualities that fit each other’s needs. Their love can best be defined as
Answers:
a.
pragma.
b.
eros.
c.
storge.
d.
agape.
Question 7
Sam is crazy about Scarlet. He cannot live without her. He spends all his time with her, and when she isn’t around, he gets very depressed. Sam is experiencing
Answers:
a.
mania.
b.
storge.
c.
eros.
d.
agape.
Question 8
Jake thinks Taylor is gorgeous. He can’t focus on anything else but her beauty and sexuality. Jake is experiencing
Answers:
a.
agape.
b.
eros.
c.
storge.
d.
pragma.
Question 9
This type of love is seen as a game and focuses on entertainment and excitement.
Answers:
a.
ludus
b.
eros
c.
storage
d.
agape
Question 10
Zara’s family members usually go their separate ways, don’t eat meals together, and rarely disclose personal information to one another. They are an example of a ____________ family.
Answers:
a.
consensual
b.
laissez-faire
c.
protective
d.
pluralistic
Question 11
Which type of friendship is considered to be ideal?
Answers:
a.
friendship of receptivity
b.
friendship of necessity
c.
friendship of association
d.
friendship of reciprocity
Question 12
Which lovers’ relationships rarely deteriorate?
Answers:
a.
pragma
b.
agape
c.
eros
d.
storage
Question 13
____________________ refers to how online friends begin to share their networks of other communicators.
Answers:
a.
Networking
b.
Assimilation
c.
Network convergence
d.
Network symmetry
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT true in relation to online relationships?
Answers:
a.
Online relationships can be empowering for persons with disabilities.
b.
Online relationships rely less on trust, honesty, and commitment.
c.
Online relationships stress the inner individual over appearance at first.
d.
You can reach more people online than face-to-face encounters.
Question 15
Ava and Mica have been classmates since the third grade. However, they do not have trust or loyalty in their relationship. Their friendship can be best classified as
Answers:
a.
collaboration.
b.
association.
c.
reciprocity.
d.
receptivity.
Unit 7 quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is TRUE about conflict?
Answers:
a.
It is not so much the conflict that creates the problem as the way in which you approach and deal with the conflict.
b.
If two people engage in relationship conflict, it means their relationship is unhealthy.
c.
Conflict hurts an interpersonal relationship.
d.
Conflict is bad because it reveals our negative selves.
Question 2
_____________________ conflict centers on facts—objects, events, and persons in the world usually external to the people involved in the conflict.
Answers:
a.
Inferential
b.
Factual
c.
Content
d.
Relationship
Question 3
Which is the ideal style of conflict?
Answers:
a.
collaborating
b.
accommodating
c.
avoiding
d.
competing
Question 4
This style of conflict management represents great concern for your own needs and desires and little concern for the needs and desires of others.
Answers:
a.
competing
b.
collaborating
c.
accommodating
d.
avoiding
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT true in regard to online conflict?
Answers:
a.
Online conflict is usually more positive than face-to-face conflict.
b.
The same conflicts that arise in face-to-face conflict can happen in online conflict.
c.
It can range from posting irrelevant messages to trolling.
d.
Online conflict often centers on the violation of Internet courtesy.
Question 6
When Leonardo and Kate argue, Kate’s all-too-frequent strategy is to bring up all of Leonardo’s previous failures and indiscretions. Kate’s behavior is best described as
Answers:
a.
blame.
b.
silencers.
c.
gunnysacking.
d.
face-detracting.
Question 7
Anna is willing to speak up when she feels like she has a point to make and is defending a cause she believes in. Anna will score high on
.
Answers:
a.
aggressiveness.
b.
extroversion.
c.
assertiveness.
d.
argumentativeness.
Question 8
Whenever, he engages in conflict, Tommy starts yelling, which prevent his partner from constructively responding. This is an example of the use of (a)
Answers:
a.
gunnysacking.
b.
silencer.
c.
beltlining.
d.
catastrophizing.
Question 9
Physical flight, falling asleep, or just mentally withdrawing are all examples of
Answers:
a.
gunnysacking.
b.
avoidance.
c.
redefinition.
d.
empathy.
Question 10
_____________________ hat asks that you look at the upside.
Answers:
a.
Positive benefits
b.
Negative
c.
Feeling
d.
Fact
Question 11
The most common type of verbal aggressiveness is
Answers:
a.
cursing.
b.
character attack.
c.
threatening.
d.
teasing.
Question 12
Which of the following is NOT a way to communicate equality when dealing with conflict?
Answers:
a.
stress your own opinions first
b.
avoid interrupting
c.
recognize cultural differences
d.
make requests and avoid demands
Question 13
John really didn’t want to take on another shift Saturday, but he didn’t want to make waves with his supervisor, so he said yes. This is an example of the ____________ conflict style.
Answers:
a.
avoiding
b.
collaborating
c.
compromising
d.
accommodating
Question 14
Ryley and Tyler were trying to decide which movie to go to—the comedy film or the new romance film. They decide to go to the comedy film tonight and see the romance film next week. This is an example of
Answers:
a.
compromising.
b.
competing.
c.
avoiding.
d.
accommodating
Question 15
_______________________ techniques involve helping the other person to maintain a positive image.
Answers:
a.
Face-enhancing
b.
Avoidance
c.
Gunnysacking
d.
Face-detracting
Unit 8 quiz
Question 1The ability of one person to influence what another person thinks or does is called
Answers:
a.
aggressiveness.
b.
empathy.
c.
power.
d.
coercion.
Question 2
Behavior from others that is unwanted and offensive, such as unconsented touching or requests for sexual favors, is
Answers:
a.
illegal.
b.
unfair use of power.
c.
all of the above.
d.
sexual harassment.
Question 3
Of the following, to whom would we most likely grant legitimate power?
Answers:
a.
another student
b.
friend
c.
sales clerk
d.
teacher
Question 4
Jayla is seen as very dynamic and personable. This is an example of
Answers:
a.
character.
b.
expert power.
c.
competence.
d.
charisma.
Question 5
_______________ refers to the techniques and strategies by which you regulate and carry on interpersonal interactions.
Answers:
a.
Feedforward
b.
Interaction management
c.
Impression management
d.
Backchanneling
Question 6
“I am very, very glad to meet you” lacks power because it contains
Answers:
a.
a tag question.
b.
a disqualifier.
c.
intensifiers.
d.
hesitations.
Question 7
Which of the following is NOT a way to speak powerfully?
Answers:
a.
avoiding self-critical statements
b.
using slang and vulgar expressions
c.
limiting disqualifiers
d.
selectively using intensifiers
Question 8
Patterns of behavior that are used to take unfair advantage of another person are called
Answers:
a.
power bases.
b.
power plays.
c.
silencers.
d.
emotional appeals.
Question 9
Lanie argues with Keanu and tells him “You can’t be serious. You can’t mean that.” She is using which power play?
Answers:
a.
“I got you now”
b.
“you’ve got to be kidding”
c.
“you owe me”
d.
“nobody upstairs”
Question 10
Kacey’s co-worker asks Kacey for her notes. Kacey tells her co-worker, “No, I don’t lend my notes out.” Kacey is using what type of compliance-resisting strategy?
Answers:
a.
negotiation
b.
nonnegotiation
c.
identity management
d.
justification
Question 11
__________________ harassment refers to mistreatment of those with less power in organizations.
Answers:
a.
Employee
b.
Status
c.
Affectional orientation
d.
Subordinate
Question 12
Bradely’s coworkers believe he is honest, trustworthy, and sincere. This dimension of credibility is known as
Answers:
a.
charisma.
b.
character.
c.
competence.
d.
coherence.
Question 13
Which of the following does NOT communicate power?
Answers:
a.
using a firm grip when you shake hands
b.
avoiding vocalized pauses
c.
using self-critical statements
d.
maintaining eye contact with the other person
Question 14
All of the following are ways to empower others EXCEPT
Answers:
a.
Be open, empathic, and positive.
b.
Relinquish your personal power.
c.
Raise the person’s self-esteem.
d.
Share skills and decision making.
Question 15
You are now an Interpersonal Communication course graduate! SmileSmile
