general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. In developing an advertising program, marketing managers can make five major decisions known as the five Ms. Which of the following is NOT one of the five Ms? a. Mission b. Money c. Message d. Media e. Minimum 2. ________ is any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor. a. Advertising b. Prospecting c. Media d. Marketing e. Public Relations 3. Advertising objectives can be classified according to whether their aim is to inform, persuade, remind, or ________. a. create interest b. purchase c. create demand d. reinforce e. introduce 4. When setting the advertising budget, marketers must consider the________. a. message details b. cost of television time c. cost of new product development d. stage in the product life cycle e. buyer’s reaction to the campaign 5. In designing and evaluating an ad campaign, it is important to distinguish the message strategyor positioning of an ad from its ________. a. brand strategy b. creative strategy c. test strategy d. medium strategy e. corporate strategy 6. A creative briefis an elaboration of the positioning statement and includes such items as ________. a. key brand benefits b. detailed instructions for the director of the commercial c. detailed instructions for the print ads d. key actors to be used in the commercial e. none of the above 7. In deciding on an ad budget, marketers must recognize that consumer response can be ________-shaped: An ad threshold effect exists where some positive amount of advertising is necessary before any sales impact can be detected, but sales increases eventually flatten out. a. T b. M c. S d. Y e. C 8. A good ad normally focuses on one or two ________. a. important environmental factors b. subliminal messages c. core selling propositions d. easily identifiable celebrities e. consumer interest items 9. Television is the most powerful advertising medium. TV advertising can be a compelling means for dramatically portraying user and usage imagery, brand personality, and other brand ________. a. sounds b. sights c. intangibles d. tangibles e. components Print media provides much ________ product information and can also effectively communicate user and usage imagery. f. detailed g. specific h. informational i. historical j. usage 10. Of the elements of a print advertisement, the ________ matters the most when it comes to the ad’s effectiveness. a. headline b. copy c. picture d. font e. color 11. Radio’s main advantage lies in its ________. a. disk jockeys b. flexibility c. format d. age of audience e. none of the above 12. The obvious disadvantages of radio include ________. a. the relatively passive nature of the consumer processing b. excessive visual stimulus c. consumers’ ability to fast forward through advertisements d. consumers’ typical commitment to a single radio station e. all of the above 13. Under U.S. law, advertisers must not ________. a. copy other’s ads b. make false claims c. advertise to children d. advertise after 3 a.m. e. demonstrate a product 14. ________ is finding the most cost-effective media to deliver the desired number and types of exposures to the target audience. a. Weight b. Frequency c. Reach d. Media buying e. Media selection 15. Puffery is defined as ________. a. a description of a bakery product b. statements used in sales brochures to tout the benefits of a product c. simple exaggerations d. lies e. legal nontruths 16. In choosing the proper media to carry the message, advertisers must decide on ________. a. strategy, users, and media b. target markets, users, and heavy users c. markets, target markets, and consumers d. reach, impact, and television stations e. reach, frequency, and impactAnswer: 17. ________ is most important when launching new products, flanker brands, or extensions of well-known brands. a. Media selection b. Weighted exposures c. Impact d. Reach e. Frequency 18. The higher the ________ associated with a brand, product category, or message, the higher the warranted level of repetition. a. total number of exposures b. target audience media habits c. forgetting rate d. impact e. reach 19. One of the advantages of television is that it combines sight, sound, and motion, appealing to the senses, high attention, and high reach. One of the disadvantages of television is its ________. a. use of the “remote control” to zap through commercials b. high clutter c. cable channels d. fragmented markets e. censorship possibilities 20. One of the advantages of direct mail is audience selectivity. One of its limitations is ________. a. its short life b. poor reproduction quality c. high competition d. long ad purchase lead time e. relatively high cost 21. Marketers are using creative and unexpected ad placements to grab consumers’ attentions in ________ advertising. a. market-specific b. customer-specific c. space d. nontraditional e. place 22. Marketers pay fees so that their products make cameo appearances in movies and on television. This is called ________. a. branded entertainment b. point of purchase c. advertorials d. product placement e. individualization 23. In-store advertising, including ads on shopping carts, in aisles, on shelves, on the floor, and “talking” shelves, are all examples of ________ advertising. a. point-of-decision b. product-placement c. point-of-purchase d. branding e. advertising 24. The main advantage of nontraditional media is that a very precise and—because of the nature of the setting involved—captive audience often can be reached in a ________ manner. a. new b. effective c. cost-effective d. targeted e. individualized 25. Television audience size has several possible measures. These include circulation, audience, and ________. a. nonexposed audience b. total circulation c. exposed audience d. listening audience e. effective audience 26. Readers of Vogue may pay more attention to ads than do readers of Newsweek. In this example, Vogue has greater ________ than Newsweek. a. ad-placement policies b. editorial quality c. audience-attention probability d. audience quality e. lead generation 27. A media vehicle’s ________ refers to its prestige and believability. People are more likely to believe a TV or radio ad and to become more positively disposed toward the brand when the ad is placed within a program they like. a. ad-placement policies b. editorial quality c. audience-attention probability d. audience quality e. lead generation 28. ________ expresses the rate at which new buyers enter the market; the higher this rate, the more continuous the advertising should be. a. Buyer demographics b. Purchase frequency c. Purchase intent d. Buyer turnover e. Buyer profile The ________ is the rate at which the buyer forgets the brand. f. designated rate g. purchase frequency h. purge rate i. turnover rate j. forgetting rate 29. The term “concentration” when used in the context of advertising means that the advertiser will ________. a. run heavy advertising day and night for a short period of time b. spend all of the advertising dollars in a single period c. run all the ads for the product within a specific period of time d. spend all of the advertising dollars across a specific time period e. not spend all of the advertising dollars in a single period 30. ________ seeks to determine whether an ad is communicating effectively. a. Communications-effect research b. Marketing research c. Buyer research d. Consumer research e. Media research
ACCT 216 Week 3 ACCT 216 Week 3 Question 1. Classify the following items as (a) an addition to the bank balance, (b) a subtraction from the bank balance, (c) an addition to the book balance, or (d) a subtraction from the book balance:_____ $20 in service charges _____ A $300 check deposited that was returned NSF_____ An outstanding check that you wrote for $2,000_____ A deposit in transit of $5,500_____ Bank Error: the bank credited your account for a deposit made by another customer2. During 2011, Jimmy Enterprises completed the following transactions:a. Sales revenue on account, $550,000.b. Collections on account, $325,000c. Write-offs of uncollectible, $13,000d. Uncollectible account expense, 5% of sales revenueRequired:1. Prepare the journal entries for the above transactions. 2. Suppose Robotics, Inc.’s inventory records for a particular item indicated the following transactions in September:September 1 Beginning Inventory 6 units @ $29September 10 Purchase 19 units @ $32September 22 Purchase 12 units @ $30September 27 Purchase 4 units @ $31Required: The company sold 22 units on September 30. Compute the ending inventory and cost of goods sold using each of the following methods:1. LIFO2. FIFO3. Average Cost
general business data bank general business data bank Question 101. Mandy Company has the following direct labor costs last month: What was Mandy's direct labor flexible-budget variance? A. $15,120 unfavorable. B. $20,800 unfavorable. C. $36,720 favorable. D. $42,480 favorable. E. $79,920 favorable. 102. A company's flexible budget for 15,000 units of production showed sales of $48,000; variable costs of $18,000; and fixed costs of $12,000. The operating income in the master budget for 20,000 units is: A. $8,000. B. $13,500. C. $24,000. D. $28,000. E. $30,000. 103. A company's master budget for October is to manufacture and sell 30,000 units for a total of $270,000 with total variable costs of $180,000 and total fixed costs of $24,000. The company actually manufactured and sold 32,000 units and generated $45,000 of operating income in October. The flexible-budget operating income in October is: A. $27,000. B. $70,400. C. $72,000. D. $83,520. E. $86,400. 104. A company's master budget for October is to manufacture and sell 30,000 units for a total of $270,000 with total variable costs of $180,000 and total fixed costs of $24,000. The company actually manufactured and sold 32,000 units and generated $45,000 of operating income in October. The operating income flexible-budget (FB) variance is: A. $3,600 unfavorable. B. $6,000 unfavorable. C. $15,400 unfavorable. D. $21,000 unfavorable. E. $27,000 unfavorable. 105. A company's master budget for October is to manufacture and sell 30,000 units for a total of $270,000 with total variable costs of $180,000 and total fixed costs of $24,000. The company actually manufactured and sold 32,000 units and generated $45,000 of operating income in October. The sales volume variance, in terms of operating income, for October is: A. $3,600 favorable. B. $6,000 favorable. C. $15,400 favorable. D. $21,000 favorable. 106. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U; and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U. The actual amount of operating income earned in September was: A. $15,000. B. $40,000. C. $63,000. D. $78,000. E. $105,000. 107. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U; and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U. The total amount of variable costs in the flexible budget for September was: A. $129,000. B. $192,000. C. $200,000. D. $208,000. E. $255,000. 108. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U); and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U). The amount of operating income in the flexible budget (FB) for September was: A. $40,000. B. $48,000. C. $56,000. D. $70,000. E. $78,000. 109. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U; and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U.The budgeted fixed cost is: A. $30,000. B. $45,000. C. $71,000. D. $78,000. E. $93,000. 110. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U; and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U. The sales volume variance, in terms of operating income, is: A. $20,000 unfavorable. B. $27,000 unfavorable. C. $36,000 unfavorable. D. $75,000 unfavorable. E. $90,000 unfavorable. 111. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U; and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U. The master budget operating income for September was: A. $78,000. B. $105,000. C. $108,000. D. $110,000. E. $135,000. 112. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U; and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U. The total number of budgeted units reflected in the master budget for September was: A. 36,000 units. B. 40,000 units. C. 45,000 units. D. 48,000 units. E. 50,000 units. 113. In September, Larson Inc. sold 40,000 units of its only product for $240,000 and incurred a total cost of $225,000, of which $25,000 is fixed costs. The flexible budget for September showed total sales of $300,000. Among variances of the period were: total variable cost flexible-budget variance, $8,000U; total flexible-budget variance, $63,000U; and, sales volume variance, in terms of contribution margin, $27,000U. The total sales revenue in the master budget for September was: A. $300,000. B. $327,000. C. $350,000. D. $375,000. E. $425,000. 114. Shoemaker Perkins Company uses a standard cost system and had 400 pounds of raw material X15 on hand on September 1. The standard cost is $10 per pound. The standard calls for 2 pounds of material X15 for each unit of the product manufactured. The company manufactured 600 units of the product in September, and had 500 pounds of Material X-15 in stock on September 30. The actual price for Material X-15 purchased during the month was $1 per pound below the standard cost. The material usage variance in September was $3,000 unfavorable. What is the purchase-price variance for Material X in September? A. $1,100 favorable. B. $1,200 favorable. C. $1,300 favorable. D. $1,500 favorable. E. $1,600 favorable. 115. Sheldon Company manufactures only one product and uses a standard cost system. During the past month, the manufacturing operations had the following variances: Direct labor rate variance = $30,000 Favorable. Direct labor efficiency variance = $50,000 Unfavorable. Sheldon allows 5 standard direct labor hours per unit produced, and its standard direct labor hourly rate is $50. During the month, the company used 25 percent more direct labor hours than the standard allowed. What was the direct labor flexible-budget (FB) variance for the month? A. $20,000 unfavorable. B. $25,000 unfavorable. C. $37,500 favorable. D. $62,500 unfavorable. E. $80,000 unfavorable. 116. Sheldon Company manufactures only one product and uses a standard cost system. During the past month, the manufacturing operations had the following variances: Direct labor rate variance = $30,000 Favorable; direct labor efficiency variance = $50,000 Unfavorable. Sheldon allows 5 standard direct labor hours per unit produced, and its standard direct labor hourly rate is $50. During the month, the company used 25 percent more direct labor hours than the standard allowed. What were the total standard hours allowed for the units manufactured during the month? A. 1,000. B. 2,500. C. 4,000. D. 5,000. E. 6,000. 117. Sheldon Company manufactures only one product and uses a standard cost system. During the past month, the manufacturing operations had the following variances: Direct labor rate variance $30,000 Favorable; direct labor efficiency variance $50,000 Unfavorable. Sheldon allows 5 standard direct labor hours per unit produced, and its standard direct labor hourly rate is $50. During the month, the company used 25 percent more direct labor hours than the standard allowed. What were the total actual direct hours worked? A. 1,000. B. 3,000. C. 4,000. D. 5,000. E. 6,000. 118.Sheldon Company manufactures only one product and uses a standard cost system. During the past month, the manufacturing operations had the following variances: Direct labor rate variance = $30,000 Favorable; direct labor efficiency variance = $50,000 Unfavorable. Sheldon allows 5 standard direct labor hours per unit produced, and its standard direct labor hourly rate is $50. During the month, the company used 25 percent more direct labor hours than the standard allowed. What was the actual hourly rate for direct labor? A. $30. B. $36. C. $44. D. $50. E. $56. 119. Sheldon Company manufactures only one product and uses a standard cost system. During the past month, the manufacturing operations had the following variances: Direct labor rate variance $30,000 Favorable. Direct labor efficiency variance 50,000 Unfavorable Sheldon allows 5 standard direct labor hours per unit produced, and its standard direct labor hourly rate is $50. During the month, the company used 25 percent more direct labor hours than the standard allowed. How many units of the product were produced during the past month? A. 800. B. 1,000. C. 1,200. D. 1,500. E. 2,000. 120. Ventura uses a just-in-time (JIT) manufacturing system for all of its materials, components, and products. The master budget of the company for June called for use of 11,000 square feet of materials, while the flexible budget for the actual output of the month had 10,000 square feet of materials at a standard cost of $9.60 per square foot. Company records show that the actual price paid for the materials used in June was $9.50 per square foot, and that the direct materials purchase-price variance for the month was $1,040. The actual total quantity of materials purchased during the month was: A. 10,000 square feet. B. 10,400 square feet. C. 11,000 square feet. D. 13,840 square feet. E. 14,880 square feet.
accounts data bank accounts data bank Question 11. During the third quarter of 2008, Pride Company sold a piece of equipment at an $8,000 gain. What portion of the gain should Pride report in its income statement for the third quarter of 2008? A. $0 B. $2,000 C. $4,000 D. $8,000 12. On March 15, 2009, Clarion Company paid property taxes of $60,000 on its factory building for calendar year 2009. On July 1, 2009, Clarion made $40,000 in unanticipated repairs to its machinery. The repairs will benefit operations for the remainder of the calendar year. What total amount of these expenses should be included in Clarion's quarterly income statement for the three months ended September 30, 2009? A. $55,000 B. $15,000 C. $35,000 D. $40,000 Forge Company, a calendar-year entity, had 6,000 units in its beginning inventory for 2008. On December 31, 2007, the units had been adjusted down to $470 per unit from an actual cost of $510 per unit. It was the lower of cost or market. No additional units were purchased during 2008. The following additional information is provided for 2008: Forge does not have sufficient experience with the seasonal market for its inventory units and assumes that any reductions in market value during the year will be permanent. 13. Based on the preceding information, the cost of goods sold for the first quarter is: A. $636,000 B. $564,000 C. $546,000 D. $624,000 14. Based on the preceding information, the cost of goods sold for the second quarter is: A. $416,000 B. $364,000 C. $304,000 D. $424,000 15. Based on the preceding information, the cost of goods sold for the year 2008, is: A. $2,080,000 B. $1,880,000 C. $1,835,000 D. $1,910,000 16. Samuel Corporation foresees a downturn in its business in the medium term. It expects to sustain an operating loss of $160,000 for the full year ending December 31, 2008. Samuel's tax rate is 35 percent. Anticipated tax credits for 2008 total $8,000. No permanent differences are expected. Realization of the full tax benefit of the expected operating loss and realization of anticipated tax credits are assured beyond any reasonable doubt because they will be carried back. For the first quarter ended March 31, 2008, Samuel reported an operating loss of $30,000. How much of a tax benefit should Samuel report for the interim period ended March 31, 2008? A. $8,000 B. $12,000 C. $13,500 D. $15,500
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. Each bondholder may vote for the board of directors in proportion to the number of bonds held. 2. Bond interest paid by a corporation is an expense, whereas dividends paid are not an expense of the corporation. 3. Registered bonds are bonds that are delivered to owners by U.S. registered mail service. 4. A debenture bond is an unsecured bond which is issued against the general credit of the borrower. 5. Bonds are a form of interest-bearing notes payable. 6. Neither corporate bond interest nor dividends are deductible for tax purposes. 7. A 10% stock dividend is the equivalent of a $1,000 par value bond paying annual interest of 10%. 8. The holder of a convertible bond can convert an interest payment received into a cash dividend paid on common stock if the dividend is greater than the interest payment. 9. The board of directors may authorize more bonds than are issued. 10. The contractual interest rate is always equal to the market interest rate on the date that bonds are issued. 11. If $150,000 face value bonds are issued at 103, the proceeds received will be $103,000. 12. Discount on bonds is an additional cost of borrowing and should be recorded as interest expense over the life of the bonds. 13. If a corporation issued bonds at an amount less than face value, it indicates that the corporation has a weak credit rating. 14. A corporation that issues bonds at a discount will recognize interest expense at a rate which is greater than the market interest rate. 15. If bonds are issued at a discount, the issuing corporation will pay a principal amount less than the face amount of the bonds on the maturity date. 16. If bonds are issued at a premium, the carrying value of the bonds will be greater than the face value of the bonds for all periods prior to the bond maturity date. 17. If the market interest rate is greater than the contractual interest rate, bonds will sell at a discount. 18. If $800,000, 6% bonds are issued on January 1, and pay interest semiannually, the amount of interest paid on July 1 will be $24,000. 19. If bonds sell at a premium, the interest expense recognized each year will be greater than the contractual interest rate. 20. The carrying value of bonds is calculated by adding the balance of the Discount on Bonds Payable account to the balance in the Bonds Payable account. 21. The loss on bond redemption is the difference between the cash paid and the carrying value of the bonds. 22. If $500,000 par value bonds with a carrying value of $476,000 are redeemed at 97, a loss on redemption will be recorded. 23. Gains and losses are not recognized when convertible bonds are converted into common stock. 24. Generally, convertible bonds do not pay interest. , 25. Each payment on a mortgage note payable consists of interest on the original balance of the loan and a reduction of the loan principal. , 26. A long-term note that pledges title to specific property as security for a loan is known as a mortgage payable. 27. A capital lease requires the lessee to record the lease as a purchase of an asset. 28. The times interest earned ratio is computed by dividing net income by interest expense. a29. The present value of a bond is a function of two variables: (1) the payment amounts and (2) the interest (discount) rate. a30. The effective-interest method of amortization results in varying amounts of amortization and interest expense per period but a constant interest rate. 31. Bonds that mature at a single specified future date are called term bonds. 32. The terms of the bond issue are set forth in a formal legal document called a bond indenture. Ans: T, 33. The carrying value of bonds at maturity should be equal to the face value of the bonds. 34. Premium on Bonds Payable is a contra account to Bonds Payable. 35. When bonds are converted into common stock, the carrying value of the bonds is transferred to paid-in capital accounts. 36. Operating leases are leases that the lessee must capitalize on its balance sheet as an asset. 37. Under a capital lease, the lease/asset is reported on the balance sheet under plant assets. 38. Long-term liabilities are reported in a separate section of the balance sheet immediately following current liabilities.
accounts data bank accounts data bank Question 16. The key to analyzing a sell as is or process further decision is to determine that: A. opportunity costs exceed sunk costs. B. incremental revenues exceed incremental costs. C. differential costs do not exist. D. all allocated costs are included in the decision. 17. In a make or buy decision which of the following costs would be considered relevant? A. Avoidable costs. B. Unavoidable costs. C. Sunk costs. D. Allocated costs. 18. Which of the following qualitative factors favors the buy option in the make or buy decision? A. Production scheduling. B. Utilization of idle capacity. C. Ability to control quality. D. Technical expertise of supplier. 19. Product Z sells for $18 per unit as is but if it is enhanced it can be sold for $24 per unit. The enhancement process will cost $50,000 for 10,000 units. If the 10,000 units of Product Z are sold as is without further processing, the company: A. will incur an incremental profit of $10,000. B. will incur an opportunity cost of $10,000. C. will incur an incremental profit of $1 per unit. D. will incur an incremental loss of $6 per unit. 20. A(n) _____________ is the minimum cost that can be incurred, which when subtracted from the selling price, allows for a desired profit to be earned. A. relevant cost. B. opportunity cost. C. incremental cost. D. target cost. 21. Product X sells for $80 per unit in the marketplace and ABC Company requires a 35% minimum profit margin on all product lines. In order to compete in this market, the target cost for Product X must be equal to or lower than: A. $28 B. $45 C. $52 D. $80 22. Which of the following costs are not relevant in a decision to continue or discontinue a segment of the organization? A. Avoidable costs. B. Unavoidable costs. C. Opportunity costs. D. Differential costs. 23. The decision to continue or discontinue a segment of the business should focus on: A. sales minus total variable expenses and total fixed expenses. B. sales minus total variable expenses and avoidable fixed expenses of the segment. C. sales minus total variable expenses and allocated fixed expenses of the business. D. none of the above. 24. The decision for solving production mix problems involving multiple products and scarce production resources should focus on: A. gross profit of each product. B. sales price of each product. C. contribution margin per unit of scarce resource. D. contribution margin of each product. 25. XYZ Company produces three products: A, B, and C. Product A has a contribution margin of $20 and requires 1 hour of machine time. Product B has a contribution margin of $30 and requires 2 hours of machine time. Product C has a contribution margin of $36 and requires 1.5 hours of machine time. If machine hours are considered scarce, in what product mix order should XYZ Company schedule the production of Products A, B, and C for the available machine hours? A. First A, then B, then C. B. First C, then A, then B. C. First C, then B, then A. D. First B, then C, then A. 26. A principal difference between operational budgeting and capital budgeting is the time frame of the budget. Because of this difference, capital budgeting: A. is an activity that involves only the financial staff. B. is done on a rolling budget period basis. C. focuses on the present value of cash flows from investments. D. is concerned with a long-term net income forecast. 27. Capital budgeting differs from operational budgeting because: A. depreciation calculations are required. B. it considers the time value of money. C. operating expenses are not relevant. D. capital budgets don't affect cash flow. 28. Capital expenditure analysis, which leads to the capital budget, attempts to determine the impact of a proposed capital expenditure on the organization's: A. segment margin. B. contribution margin. C. ROI. D. cost of capital. 29. The cost of capital used in the capital budgeting analytical process is primarily a function of: A. ROE. B. ROI. C. the cost of acquiring the funds that will be invested. D. the discount rate. 30. For most firms, the cost of capital is probably in the range of: A. the prime rate, plus or minus 2 percentage points. B. less than 10%. C. between 10% and 20%. D. more than 20%.
general business data bank general business data bank general business data bank general business data bank Question What is the problem described by the van Eck phenomenon and studied under TEMPEST? A) Magnetic fields that interfere with signals crossing Local Area Network (LAN) cables B) Electromagnetic pulses destroying sensitive computer equipment C) Piggybacking on electromagnetic communications D) Electromagnetic eavesdropping 2. Halon is effective at putting out fires and safe for humans but can damage equipment. A) True B) False 3. Your boss needs instructions explaining the steps of how to send encrypted email properly for all employees. You will need to create the _________. A) procedure B) policy C) guideline D) standard 4. Voice recognition, iris scans, and facial geometry can be used for biometric access controls. A) True B) False 5. Shoulder surfing is when a person looks over the shoulder of another person while typing pins or passwords. A) True B) False 6. Standards are recommendations relating to a policy. A) True B) False 7. When an attacker attempts to get credit card numbers using telephone and voice technologies, it's called A) Phreaking B) Telephishing C) Vishing D) Voicing 8. One of the most effective tools for foiling the efforts of a social engineering attack is an active security awareness program. A) True B) False 9. The greatest danger to networks comes from A) Attacks coming across the public switched telephone network B) Natural disasters C) Foreign hackers D) Insiders 10. When an attacker tries to position himself behind a user so that he can see what keys are being typed or what information is on the screen is called _______________ Correct Answer(s): shoulder surfing 11. _______________ are mandatory elements regarding the implementation of a policy. 12. Statements made by management that lays out the organization's position on an issue are called ________. A) procedures B) policies C) guidelines D) standards 13. All of the following are characteristics of a strong password EXCEPT: A) Contains special characters, i.e., *%$#@ B) Contains numbers and letters C) Contains an uncommon dictionary word D) Contains at least eight characters 14. _______________ is the simple tactic of following closely behind a person who has just used their own access card or PIN to gain physical access to a room or building. Correct Answer(s): Piggybacking 15. _______________ are devices that have batteries that are used to keep equipment running in the event of a power outage.
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. At the heart of a successful brand is ________, backed by creatively designed and executed marketing. a. price b. promotion c. a great product or service d. a great slogan e. a brand concept 2. The strategic brand management process involves four main steps. Which of the following would NOT be among those steps? a. Measuring consumer brand knowledge b. Identifying and establishing brand positioning c. Planning and implementing brand marketing d. Measuring and interpreting brand performance e. Growing and sustaining brand value 3. The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as “a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors.” a. holistic product concept b. product concept c. service concept d. brand e. brand image 4. Consumers learn about brands through ________ and product marketing programs. a. the mass media b. past experiences with the product c. the sales force d. shopping bots e. independent information sources 5. ________ is endowing products and services with the power of a brand. a. Brand image b. The branding concept c. Branding d. Brand positioning e. Brand partitioning 6. Brand ________ is the added value endowed to products and services. a. loyalty b. equity c. preference d. satisfaction e. benefits 7. The premise of ________ models is that the power of a brand lies in what customers have seen, read, learned, thought, and felt about the brand over time. a. product-based brand equity b. service-based brand equity c. functional-based brand equity d. mission-driven brand equity e. customer-based brand equity 8. ________ can be defined as the differential effect that brand knowledge has on consumer response to the marketing of that brand. a. Mission-driven brand equity b. Customer-based brand equity c. Product-driven brand equity d. Service-driven brand equity e. Function-based brand equity 9. If consumers do not demonstrate different responses to different brands within a product category, then the products are essentially commodities or generic versions and competition will probably be based on ________. a. emotional attachment b. brand awareness c. advertising expenditure d. price e. prestige 10. When a consumer expresses thoughts, feelings, images, experiences, beliefs, and so on that become associated with the brand, the consumer is expressing brand ________. a. knowledge b. loyalty c. behavior d. preference e. equity 11. The challenge for marketers in building a strong brand is ________. a. ensuring that customers have the right type of experiences with products and their marketing programs to create the desired brand knowledge b. pricing the product at a point that maximizes sales volumes c. minimizing the number of people to whom the product is targeted in order to provide consumers with a personalized experience d. retain as many customers as possible in order to minimize the costs and pressure associated with continually generating new leads e. maximizing customer value 12. Strong brands possess all of the following marketing advantages EXCEPT ________. a. greater loyalty b. larger margins c. guaranteed profits d. improved perceptions of product performance e. more elastic consumer response to price decreases 13. ________ is what drives the differences that manifest themselves in brand equity. a. Brand image b. Consumer income c. Consumer purchasing power d. Consumer knowledge e. Brand perception 14. When a marketer expresses his or her vision of what the brand must be and do for consumers, they are expressing what is called ________. a. a brand promise b. a brand mission c. brand equity d. a brand position e. a brand concept 15. There are five key components—or pillars—of brand equity. Which of those components or pillars measures the breadth of a brand’s appeal? a. Differentiation b. Relevance c. Esteem d. Knowledge e. Value 16. Three pillars that point to the brand’s future value, rather than just reflecting its past, are differentiation, energy, and relevance. Differentiation, energy, and relevance combine to determine what is called brand ________. a. position b. image c. depth d. knowledge e. strength 17. According to Young and Rubicam’s brand asset valuator, a brand’s ________ measures how well the brand is regarded and respected. a. differentiation b. energy c. relevance d. esteem e. knowledge 18. David Aaker views brand equity as a set of three categories of brand assets and liabilities linked to a brand that add or subtract from the value provided by a product or service. They include all of the following EXCEPT ________. a. brand loyalty b. brand awareness c. brand associations d. brand price e. None of the above is among Aaker’s three categories. 19. According to Aaker, a particularly important concept for building brand equity is ________—the unique set of brand associations that represent what the brand stands for and promises to consumers. a. brand knowledge b. brand preference c. brand identity d. brand vision e. brandable differences 20. According to the BRANDZ model of brand strength, brand building involves a sequential series of steps. Which of these steps would address or answer the question, “Do I know about it?”? a. relevance b. presence c. performance d. advantage e. bonding 21. All of the following are considered to be among the “six brand building blocks” EXCEPT ________. a. brand salience b. brand performance c. brand imagery d. brand feelings e. brand pride 22. With respect to the “six brand building blocks,” ________ focus on customers’ own personal opinions and evaluations. a. brand salience b. brand performance c. brand imagery d. brand judgments e. brand resonance 23. With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following “building block levels” would we expect the consumer to develop an intense, active loyalty? a. salience b. imagery c. feelings d. judgments e. resonance 24. From a marketing management perspective, there are three main sets of brand equity drivers. Which of these drivers was most applicable when McDonald’s decided to use the “golden arches” and Ronald McDonald as symbols of their brand? a. The product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs b. The service and all accompanying marketing activities and programs c. The initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand d. Associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to some other entity e. The profitability associated with brand development 25. ________ are those trademarkable devices that serve to identify and differentiate the brand. a. Brand elements b. Brand value c. Brand perception d. Brand image e. Brand tracks 26. Six brand elements assist in brand building. Which of the following would NOT be among those preferred brand elements? a. Adaptable b. Protectible c. Memorable d. Likable e. Subliminal nature 27. If a brand element can be used to introduce new products in the same or different categories, the brand element is said to be ________. a. memorable b. meaningful c. likeable d. transferable e. adaptable 28. Brand names are not the only important brand element. Often, ________, the more important it is that brand elements capture the brand’s intangible characteristics. a. the less concrete brand benefits are b. the more concrete brand benefits are c. the more varied brand perceptions are d. the less varied brand perceptions are e. the more sophisticated brand benefits are 29. With respect to powerful brand elements, a ________ is an extremely efficient means to build brand equity. The element can function as useful “hooks” or “handles” to help consumers grasp what the brand is and what makes it special. a. spokesperson b. product shape c. slogan d. patent e. promotional descriptor 30. A ________ can be defined as any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer’s product or service. a. brand value b. brand element c. brand trait d. brand character e. brand contact
Davenport BUSN520 Week 2 “Panera Bread” Video Case Analysis Davenport BUSN520 Week 2 “Panera Bread” Video Case Analysis Question The purpose of this assignment is to develop and demonstrate your ability to analyze a case, utilizing a valid analysis framework. This assignment will require the synthesis of the video with course concepts from your management text, supported with research citations and references.Complete a thorough case analysis using the Case Analysis Guidelines. Review the Panera Bread management video link provided above. Then examine the case analysis guidelines which will be the framework for the analysis of the video. The complete document - Case Study Guidelines - can be found in your weekly materials. Please read the document thoroughly before you begin writing your case analysis! Be sure to focus on managementissues in this case. Your paper should be formatted as follows: Synopsis of the situation (this should be brief)Key issuesIdentification of one key problemAlternative solutions (2 or more) to the one key problemSelected solution/why it was chosenYour recommendation(s) on how to implement the selected solution Present your analysis in APA format, using headings and in-text citations, and references. The completed paper should be 6-8 pages in length. Case Analysis Guidelines The purpose of a case analysis assignment is to provide you with an opportunity to apply concepts from class to actual situations. Your case analysis should be professionally written, concise, and in APA format. Please be sure to incorporate theories or concepts from class, and outside research. Reference them appropriately. Your case analysis should follow the model described below: · Review the case. · Begin your written analysis using the following format and/or headings: · Synopsis of the Situation: Write a brief synopsis that describes the background information about the case, an overview of the case. · Key Issues: Definethe key issues/factors and the roles of the Key Players. You should include only those issues that impact the identified problem. · Define the Problem & the Opportunity. Identify one key problem. While there may be several problems and a multitude of symptoms, attempt to identify one problem, the resolution of which would alleviate most of the symptoms found in the case. · Alternative Solutions. Develop two or more alternative solutions to the defined problem. This should not be a laundry list of actions one could take to address every symptom, but alternative actions that could correct the problem at hand. Identify the pros and cons of implementing each alternative. · Selected Solution to the Problem: Select one of the alternatives and explain why it would be best. Most of this work is already done if the alternative solutions clearly point out advantages and disadvantages to each. · Implementation/Recommendations:Identify how to implement the selected solution and what the expected results (positive and negative) might be. Your job is to identify an action, not put off action. General Guidelines: 1. Use APA Style including headings or labels. Using headings or labels throughout your written analysis will help your reader follow your analysis and recommendations. For example, if you are analyzing the weaknesses of the firm in the case, include the heading Weaknesses. 2. Spend more time on Alternatives than Synopsis of Situation. This is where you demonstrate your problem solving abilities. Be sure you (a) identify alternatives, (b) evaluate each alternative, and (c) recommend the alternative you think is best. 3. Use topic sentences. You can help your reader more easily evaluate your analysis by putting the topic sentence first in each paragraph and following with statements directly supporting the topic sentence. 4. Be specific in your recommendations. Develop specific recommendations logically and be sure your recommendations are well defended by your analysis. Avoid using generalizations, clichés, and ambiguous statements. Remember that any number of answers are possible and so your professor is most concerned about how your reasoning led to your recommendations and how well you develop and support your ideas. 5. Do not overlook implementation. Many good analyses receive poor evaluations because they do not include a discussion of implementation. Your analysis will be much stronger when you discuss how your recommendation can be implemented. Include some of the specific actions needed to achieve the objectives you are proposing. 6. Specifically state your assumptions. Cases, like all real business situations, involve incomplete information. Therefore, it is important that you clearly state any assumptions you make in your analysis.
Statistics Worksheet Statistics Worksheet Question Hello, everyone! I am taking an introductory statistics class and I need some help from someone who truly understands the subject. This person will have steady work for the next few weeks, as I will be posting one worksheet a week. There are 11 questions and I have posted them as attachments. This needs to be completed by Saturday (11/30/2013). Please only complete the worksheet if you are knowledgeable in statistics. Thank you in advance. , Attachments (621.41 KB)