general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. _______________ is done by comparing the input plaintext to the output ciphertext to try to determine the key used to encrypt the information. Correct Answer(s): Differential cryptanalysis 2. The art of secret writing that enables an individual to hide the contents of a message from all but the intended recipient is called A) Key management B) Steganography C) Cryptanalysis D) Cryptography 3. PKI can be used as a measure to trust individuals we do not know. A) True B) False 4. Keyspace refers to A) All possible key values B) The number of keys needed to encrypt or decrypt a message C) The location where keys are stored D) The portion of the algorithm that the key connects with to encrypt or decrypt a message 5. The benefit of SHA-1 over MD5 is that it is resistant to a collision attack. A) True B) False 6. All of the following are asymmetric encryption algorithms EXCEPT: A) ECC B) RSA C) 3DES D) ElGamal 7. The process for protecting intellectual property from unauthorized used is called A) Digital signatures B) Digital rights management C) Key escrow D) Anti-pirating management 8. What is a certificate authority? A) An entity that generates electronic credentials B) An entity that requires proof of identity from the individual requesting a certificate C) A centralized directory in which the registered certificate is stored D) An entity that generates a digitally signed identification certificate 9. Hiding a text file in a jpg file is an example of steganography. A) True B) False 10. The encryption method based on the idea of using a shared key for encryption and decryption of data is A) Symmetric encryption B) Elliptical curve encryption C) Hashing function D) Asymmetric encryption 11. The term used to describe a centralized directory that can be accessed by a subset of individuals is _______________ Correct Answer(s): certificate repository 12. The cipher that replaces each letter of the alphabet with a different letter (not in sequence) is a A) Substitution cipher B) Vigenère cipher C) Shift cipher D) Transposition cipher 13. All of the following are cryptographic applications EXCEPT: A) FreeOTFE B) PGP C) StegDetect D) GnuPG 14. How is an outsourced CA different from a public CA? A) It provides dedicated services, and possibly equipment, to an individual company. B) The CA is implemented, maintained, and controlled by the company that implemented it. C) The CA is already established and being used by many individuals and companies. D) The CA provides more flexibility for companies. 15. The difference between centralized and decentralized infrastructures is A) In a decentralized infrastructure, the certificate may have an extended lifetime. B) The network administrator sets up the distribution points in centralized infrastructures. C) The location where the cryptographic key is generated and stored is different. D) The key pairs and certificates do not have a set lifetime in centralized infrastructures.
economics data bank economics data bank Question ____ 31. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Neither economic theory nor evidence from the U.S. economy suggests that there is a close link between productivity and real wages. b. Economic theory suggests that there is a close link between productivity and real wages, but evidence from the U.S. economy fails to confirm that link. c. Evidence from the U.S. economy suggests a close link between productivity and real wages, but economic theory provides no basis for such a link. d. Both economic theory and evidence from the U.S. economy suggest that there is a close link between productivity and real wages. ____ 32. Laura consumes only beer and chips. Her indifference curves are all bowed inward. Consider the bundles (2,6), (4,4), and (6,2). If Laura is indifferent between (2,6) and (6,2), then Laura must a. prefer (4,4) to (6,2). c. prefer (6,2) to (4,4). b. be indifferent between (4,4) and (6,2). d. prefer (2,6) to (4,4). ____ 33. Figure 14-9 MC ATC P1 Q1 (a) P0 P2 Q2 Quantity Price P1 QA (b) P0 P2 QBQD QC S0 S1 D0 D1 A B C D Quantity Price Refer to Figure 14-9. Assume that the market starts in equilibrium at point A in panel (b). An increase in demand from D0 to D1 will result in a. a new market equilibrium at point D. b. an eventual increase in the number of firms in the market and a new long-run equilibrium at point C. c. rising prices and falling profits for existing firms in the market. d. falling prices and falling profits for existing firms in the market. ____ 34. Which of the following statements is correct for a monopolist? i) The firm maximizes profits by equating marginal revenue with marginal cost. ii) The firm maximizes profits by equating price with marginal cost. iii) Demand equals marginal revenue. iv) Average revenue equals price. a. i), iii), and iv) only b. CHOICE BLANK c. i), ii), and iv) only d. i), ii), iii), and iv) e. and iv) only ____ 35. Figure 15-5 Curve B Curve A Curve D Curve C Q3 P4 P2 Q4 P3 Q1 P0 P1 Q2 P5 Quantity Price Refer to Figure 15-5. A profit-maximizing monopoly's profit is equal to a. P4 x Q3. c. (P4-P1) x Q3. b. (P4-P2) x Q3. d. (P5-P0) x Q1. ____ 36. Refer to Figure 15-5. Profit on a typical unit sold for a profit-maximizing monopoly would equal a. P5-P0. c. P4-P1. b. P4-P2. d. P4-P3. ____ 37. Refer to Figure 15-5. At the profit-maximizing level of output, a. marginal revenue is equal to P3. c. average revenue is equal to P4. b. marginal cost is equal to P3. d. average total cost is equal to P0. ____ 38. A monopolistically competitive firm faces the following demand schedule for its product: Price ($)10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Quantity2 4 6 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 The firm has total fixed costs of $20 and a constant marginal cost of $2 per unit. The firm will maximize profit with a. 6 units of output. c. 11 units of output. b. 9 units of output. d. 13 units of output. ____ 39. If "too much choice" is a problem for consumers, it would occur in which market structure(s)? a. perfect competition b. monopoly c. monopolistic competition d. perfect competition and monopolistic competition ____ 40. When a market is monopolistically competitive, the typical firm in the market is likely to experience a a. positive profit in the short run and in the long run. b. positive or negative profit in the short run and a zero profit in the long run. c. zero profit in the short run and a positive or negative profit in the long run. d. zero profit in the short run and in the long run.
Predictive Policing Predictive Policing Question Assignment: Predictive PolicingWrite a 4-5 Pages paper in which you describe this,1. Compare and contrast the application of IT to optimize police department performance to reduce crime versus random patrols of the streets 2. Describe how COMPSTST, as an information system (IS). Implement the four (4) basic IS functions a. Input b. Processing c. Output d. Feedback 3. Determine how information systems have allowed police department that implements tools such as COMPSTAT to respond to crime faster 4. Apply the strengths weaknesses opportunities and threats analysis (SOWT Analysis) on behalf of police departments that intend to implement predictive policing 5. Use at least 3 quality resources in this assignment 6. MUST BE TYPED DOUBLE SPACE, TIMES NEW ROMAN FONT With one Inch margin to all
general business data bank general business data bank Question 448TEST BANK B—UNIT NINE: GOVERNMENT REGULATION B10. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) wants to review certain records of Verity Corporation. The USPTO can gain access to the records through a. a subpoena only. b. neither Verity’s consent nor a subpoena. c. Verity’s consent only. d. Verity’s consent or a subpoena. B11. Caleb is a witness in a controversy involving the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration. Caleb can be compelled to appear before an administrative law judge if he is served with a. an order for specific performance. b. a rule for parol evidence. c. a subpoenaad testificandum. d. a subpoenaduces tecum. B12. Nursing Home Care Company is charged with violating a rule of the Social Security Administration. Most likely, Nursing Home Care will be required to appear at a hearing presided over by a. a federal appellate court judge. b. a federal district court judge. c. an administrative law judge. d. a U.S Marshal. B13. The functions of the Social Security Administration, like those of other administrative agencies, include a. adjudication. c. declaration. b. enunciation. d. pronunciation. CHAPTER 43: ADMINISTRATIVE LAW449 B14. The U.S. Mine Safety Administration conducts searches of certain businesses. This agency and other administrative agencies can conduct warrantless searches in a. all industries. b. highly regulated industries. c. no industries. d. newly regulated industries only. B15. The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) discovers that Goodnuff Trailers, Inc., is violating a FEMA regulation. If this situation is resolved like most such disputes, the outcome will be a. a negotiated settlement. b. a trial and a fine. c. a trial and an appeal to a higher authority. d. a trial and the dissolution of the business. B16. Labor Recruiters, Inc., has been ordered to appear at a hearing before an administrative law judge of the National Labor Relations Board. A significant difference between a trial and an administrative hearing is that a. attorneys are not allowed to attend administrative hearings. b. clients are not allowed to communicate with their attorneys during administrative hearings. c. hearsay can be introduced as evidence in an administrative hearing. d. the burden of proof is on the charged party to prove innocence. 450TEST BANK B—UNIT NINE: GOVERNMENT REGULATION B17. Plastix Produx Company is subject to a decision by the Consumer Product Safety Commission. Opposed to the decision, Plastix Produx wants a court to review it. First, however, the firm must use all of the potential administrative remedies. This is a. an actual controversy at issue. b. standing to sue. c. the exhaustion doctrine. d. the ripeness doctrine. B18. Jay seeks information about Kim and other well-known businesspersons under the Freedom of Information Act. To obtain the information, Jay must a. agree not to reveal any trade secrets. b. describe the information. c. get a court order. d. have Kim’s and the others’ permission. B19. A failure of the Federal Bureau of Investigation to comply with a request under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) may be challenged in a. a federal district court. b. a hearing before the U.S. Freedom of Information Agency. c. a meeting with Congress’s FOIA subcommittee. d. a special conference with the president of the United States. B20. Closed meetings of the Office of Community Planning and Development and other federal administrative agencies are permitted when a. the subject of the meeting concerns accusing a person of a crime. b. open meetings would frustrate the implementation of future agency actions. c. the subject of the meeting involves matters relating to future litigation or rulemaking. d. all of the choices. ANSWER: D CHAPTER 43: ADMINISTRATIVE LAW451 ESSAY QUESTIONS B1. Power-Plus Battery Company (PPBC) makes batteries for motor vehicles. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) proposes a safety rule governing the handling of acids in the workplace, including chemicals PPBC uses in its operations. PPBC concludes that the rule will involve substantial compliance costs without significantly increasing workplace safety. PPBC sends a letter to OSHA indicating its objections to the proposed rule and enclosing research reports and other data supporting those objections. Does OSHA have any obligation to consider these objections? What procedures must OSHA follow when it makes new rules, such as this one? it in theFederal Register. Later, the rule is compiled with those rules of other federal agencies in theCode of Federal Regulations. B2. Omega Company operates a computer chip production plant. Paula is the president of Omega. Ron, a representative of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, inspects the plant and, citing a certain regulation, orders Omega to take specified steps immediately to improve sanitation at the plant. Paula believes that Ron is either exceeding his authority or that the regulation Ron claims to be enforcing is excessive. Can Omega ask a court for an order to stop enforcement of the regulation? If not, what can Omega do?
accounts data bank accounts data bank Question 29. The British subsidiary of a U.S. company reported cost of goods sold of 75,000 pounds (sterling) for the current year ended December 31. The beginning inventory was 10,000 pounds, and the ending inventory was 15,000 pounds. Spot rates for various dates are as follows: Assuming the dollar is the functional currency of the British subsidiary, the remeasured amount of cost of goods sold that should appear in the consolidated income statement is: A. $108,750. B. $112,500. C. $114,250. D. $125,700. 30. The British subsidiary of a U.S. company reported cost of goods sold of 75,000 pounds (sterling) for the current year ended December 31. The beginning inventory was 10,000 pounds, and the ending inventory was 15,000 pounds. Spot rates for various dates are as follows: Assuming the pound is the functional currency of the British subsidiary, the translated amount of cost of goods sold that should appear in the consolidated income statement is: A. $108,750. B. $112,500. C. $114,300. D. $125,700. 31. Elan's Investment in Swiss subsidiary account at December 31, 2008, is: A. $1,881,050. B. $1,916,050. C. $1,923,950. D. $2,051,500. 32. Elan's consolidated workpaper eliminations related to the foreign currency translation adjustment will include which entry? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
general business data bank general business data bank Question TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS 1. An executor is a personal representative named in a will. 2. An administrator is a personal representative appointed by a court for a decedent who dies without a will. 3. One who dies with a valid will has died intestate. 4. If no heirs or kin can be found, title to the property of a deceased individual is transferred to charitable organizations. 5. A legatee is a person who receives a gift of real property under a will. 6. A gift of real estate by will is a bequest. 7. A lapsed legacy will occur if the testator predeceases the legatee. 8. A will is probated to establish its validity and to carry out the administration of the estate. 9. To be effective, a will must follow certain requirements exactly. 10. Testamentary capacity requires a testator to be of legal age at the time a will is made. 11. In most states, a person must be twenty-one years of age to execute a valid will. 12. The uniform law covering wills is called the Uniform Testamentary Code. 13. A will may be declared invalid because of undue influence. 14. Generally, a will must be in writing. 15. A will that is completely in the handwriting of the testator is a nuncupative will. 16. Many states do not permit nuncupative wills. 17. A formal will may be implied by conduct. 18. A will is required to be in writing only if real property is being transferred. 19. A nuncupative will is an oral will. 20. An "X" or other mark cannot qualify as a signature on a will. 21. Once executed, a will cannot be revoked. 22. A testator's intentionally destroying a will revokes it. 23. To "publish" a will means to record it in the appropriate county office. 24. A testator may revoke a will by tearing it. 25. A will can be amended. 26. A codicil is a clause in a will affirming the testator's testamentary capacity. 27. Divorce does not necessarily revoke the entire will of a spouse who executed the will prior to the divorce. 28. A child born after a will has been executed may still inherit a portion of his or her parent's estate. 29. Many states allow for the distribution of assets without probate proceedings. 30. Under intestacy laws, only when no children or grandchildren survive the decedent will a surviving spouse succeed to the entire estate.
general business data bank general business data bank Question 41. When RedBox rents DVD movies from vending machines at McDonald's, it is acting as a channel captain, not a retailer. True False 42. Automatic vending accounts for 15 percent of total U.S. retail sales. True False 43. Door-to-door selling now accounts for less than 1 percent of retail sales in the United States. True False 44. Internationally, door-to-door selling is growing in popularity and, in the U.S., it accounts for more than 15 percent of all retail sales. True False 45. Electronic shopping, which puts catalogs on cable TV or Internet websites, has not yet succeeded. True False 46. Home shopping methods--like cable TV shopping channels and catalogs--now use a multichannel approach by adding a website. True False 47. It's best to think of retailing on the Internet as just another example of how low-margin mass-merchandisers appeal to large target markets with discount prices. True False 48. Many types of retailers are now establishing a presence on the Internet. True False 49. Today, about half of all computer hardware and software and a quarter of all books are sold online. True False 50. Retail sales on the Internet grew very rapidly at first, but now are expected to grow slowly. True False 51. Retailing on the Internet already accounts for about 25 percent of all retail sales. True False 52. It's usually possible for a consumer to get much more information about a product in a retail store than on the Web. True False 53. To overcome the limitation of not being able to physically inspect a product before purchasing online, many online retailers now provide photos and videos that demonstrate the product. True False 54. The Internet makes it easy to do comparison shopping of products and prices. True False 55. A consumer's total cost of shopping on the Internet includes delivery costs in addition to purchase price. True False 56. A large chain like Kohl's uses its website to supplement the product assortment in its brick-and-mortar stores. True False 57. Ace Hardware is a multichannel retailer that integrates online and brick-and-mortar stores (because its customers gather information online and then buy in a store or vice versa). True False 58. The "wheel of retailing" theory says that new retailers enter the market as high-status, high-margin, high-price operators and then evolve into discount stores as competition becomes more intense. True False 59. The development of department stores and supermarkets is explained by the "Wheel of Retailing" theory. True False 60. The "wheel of retailing" theory fails to explain some major retailing developments, such as vending machines and convenience food stores, which did not enter the market with a low-price emphasis. True False 61. The development of vending machines and convenience food stores is not explained by the "Wheel of Retailing" theory. True False 62. Scrambled merchandising is carrying any product lines a store thinks it can sell profitably. True False 63. "Scrambled merchandising" refers to the practice of conventional retailers handling many products within a limited-line, even though many of these products have to be sold at a low profit. True False 64. Retailers who carry any product line that will sell profitably are practicing "scrambled merchandising." True False 65. Scrambled merchandising means mixing product lines for higher profits. True False 66. The product life cycle concept applies to retailers as well as products. True False 67. Application of the product life cycle concept to retailing suggests that all types of retailers are in early market growth due to continually increasing family income. True False 68. The majority of all retailers in the U.S. have annual average sales of less than $1 million. True False 69. Less than 6 percent of all retail sales are made by smaller stores--those with sales of less than $1 million a year. True False 70. Less than 15 percent of retail stores in the U.S. have annual average sales of $5 million or more. True False 71. Almost 75 percent of all retail sales are made by the largest stores--those with sales of over $5 million a year. True False 72. The average retail store is too small to gain economies of scale. True False 73. Corporate chains are taking a smaller percentage of retail sales now that consumers are demanding lower prices. True False 74. The growth of cooperative chains of retail stores is due to the desire of small retailers to achieve some of the benefits of large-scale corporate chains. True False 75. "Cooperative chains" like True Value Hardware are retailer-sponsored groups formed by independent retailers to run their own buying organizations. True False 76. Cooperative chains tend to work with independent retailers, not corporate chain retailers. True False 77. "Voluntary chains" are retailer-sponsored groups--and "cooperative chains" are wholesaler-sponsored groups--that work together to better compete with corporate chains. True False 78. Voluntary chains like SuperValu in groceries are wholesaler-sponsored groups that work with "independent" retailers. True False 79. In a franchise operation, the franchisor develops a good marketing strategy, and the retail franchise holders carry out the strategy in their own units. True False 80. Franchise operations, such as Subway, Quiznos, Curves, The UPS Store, Jackson Hewitt Tax Service, Dunkin' Donuts, Jani-King, RE/MAX Int'l, 7-Eleven, and Liberty Tax Service account for about a third of all retail sales. True False
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. Activities of a firm which require the spending of cash are known as: A. sources of cash. B. uses of cash. C. cash collections. D. cash receipts. E. cash on hand. 2. The sources and uses of cash over a stated period of time are reflected on the: A. income statement. B. balance sheet. C. tax reconciliation statement. D. statement of cash flows. E. statement of operating position. 3. A common-size income statement is an accounting statement that expresses all of a firm's expenses as percentage of: A. total assets. B. total equity. C. net income. D. taxable income. E. sales. 4. Which one of the following standardizes items on the income statement and balance sheet relative to their values as of a common point in time? A. statement of standardization B. statement of cash flows C. common-base year statement D. common-size statement E. base reconciliation statement 5. Relationships determined from a firm's financial information and used for comparison purposes are known as: A. financial ratios. B. identities. C. dimensional analysis. D. scenario analysis. E. solvency analysis. 6. The formula which breaks down the return on equity into three component parts is referred to as which one of the following? A. equity equation B. profitability determinant C. SIC formula D. Du Pont identity E. equity performance formula 7. The U.S. government coding system that classifies a firm by the nature of its business operations is known as the: A. NASDAQ 100. B. Standard & Poor's 500. C. Standard Industrial Classification code. D. Governmental ID code. E. Government Engineered Coding System. 8. Which one of the following is a source of cash? A. increase in accounts receivable B. decrease in notes payable C. decrease in common stock D. increase in accounts payable E. increase in inventory 9. Which one of the following is a use of cash? A. increase in notes payable B. decrease in inventory C. increase in long-term debt D. decrease in accounts receivables E. decrease in common stock 10. Which one of the following is a source of cash? A. repurchase of common stock B. acquisition of debt C. purchase of inventory D. payment to a supplier E. granting credit to a customer 11. Which one of the following is a source of cash? A. increase in accounts receivable B. decrease in common stock C. decrease in long-term debt D. decrease in accounts payable E. decrease in inventory 12. On the Statement of Cash Flows, which of the following are considered financing activities? I. increase in long-term debt II. decrease in accounts payable III. interest paid IV. dividends paid A. I and IV only B. III and IV only C. II and III only D. I, III, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV 13. On the Statement of Cash Flows, which of the following are considered operating activities? I. costs of goods sold II. decrease in accounts payable III. interest paid IV. dividends paid A. I and III only B. III and IV only C. I, II, and III only D. I, III, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV 14. According to the Statement of Cash Flows, a decrease in accounts receivable will _____ the cash flow from _____ activities. A. decrease; operating B. decrease; financing C. increase; operating D. increase; financing E. increase; investment 15. According to the Statement of Cash Flows, an increase in interest expense will _____ the cash flow from _____ activities. A. decrease; operating B. decrease; financing C. increase; operating D. increase; financing E. increase; investment 16. On a common-size balance sheet all accounts are expressed as a percentage of: A. sales for the period. B. the base year sales. C. total equity for the base year. D. total assets for the current year. E. total assets for the base year. 17. On a common-base year financial statement, accounts receivables will be expressed relative to which one of the following? A. current year sales B. current year total assets C. base-year sales D. base-year total assets E. base-year accounts receivables 18. A firm uses 2008 as the base year for its financial statements. The common-size, base-year statement for 2009 has an inventory value of 1.08. This is interpreted to mean that the 2009 inventory is equal to 108 percent of which one of the following? A. 2008 inventory B. 2008 total assets C. 2009 total assets D. 2008 inventory expressed as a percent of 2008 total assets E. 2009 inventory expressed as a percent of 2009 total assets 19. Which of the following ratios are measures of a firm's liquidity? I. cash coverage ratio II. interval measure III. debt-equity ratio IV. quick ratio A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. I, III, and IV only D. I, II, and III only E. I, II, III, and IV 20. An increase in current liabilities will have which one of the following effects, all else held constant? Assume all ratios have positive values. A. increase in the cash ratio B. increase in the net working capital to total assets ratio C. decrease in the quick ratio D. decrease in the cash coverage ratio E. increase in the current ratio 21. An increase in which one of the following will increase a firm's quick ratio without affecting its cash ratio? A. accounts payable B. cash C. inventory D. accounts receivable E. fixed assets 22. A supplier, who requires payment within ten days, should be most concerned with which one of the following ratios when granting credit? A. current B. cash C. debt-equity D. quick E. total debt 23. A firm has an interval measure of 48. This means that the firm has sufficient liquid assets to do which one of the following? A. pay all of its debts that are due within the next 48 hours B. pay all of its debts that are due within the next 48 days C. cover its operating costs for the next 48 hours D. cover its operating costs for the next 48 days E. meet the demands of its customers for the next 48 hours 24. Over the past year, the quick ratio for a firm increased while the current ratio remained constant. Given this information, which one of the following must have occurred? Assume all ratios have positive values. A. current assets increased B. current assets decreased C. inventory increased D. inventory decreased E. accounts payable increased 25. Ratios that measure a firm's financial leverage are known as _____ ratios. A. asset management B. long-term solvency C. short-term solvency D. profitability E. book value 26. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. If the total debt ratio is greater than .50, then the debt-equity ratio must be less than 1.0. B. Long-term creditors would prefer the times interest earned ratio be 1.4 rather than 1.5. C. The debt-equity ratio can be computed as 1 plus the equity multiplier. D. An equity multiplier of 1.2 means a firm has $1.20 in sales for every $1 in equity. E. An increase in the depreciation expense will not affect the cash coverage ratio. 27. If a firm has a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, then its total debt ratio must be which one of the following? A. 0.0 B. 0.5 C. 1.0 D. 1.5 E. 2.0 28. The cash coverage ratio directly measures the ability of a firm's revenues to meet which one of its following obligations? A. payment to supplier B. payment to employee C. payment of interest to a lender D. payment of principle to a lender E. payment of a dividend to a shareholder 29. Jasper United had sales of $21,000 in 2008 and $24,000 in 2009. The firm's current accounts remained constant. Given this information, which one of the following statements must be true? A. The total asset turnover rate increased. B. The days' sales in receivables increased. C. The net working capital turnover rate increased. D. The fixed asset turnover decreased. E. The receivables turnover rate decreased. 30. The Corner Hardware has succeeded in increasing the amount of goods it sells while holding the amount of inventory on hand at a constant level. Assume that both the cost per unit and the selling price per unit also remained constant. This accomplishment will be reflected in the firm's financial ratios in which one of the following ways? A. decrease in the inventory turnover rate B. decrease in the net working capital turnover rate C. no change in the fixed asset turnover rate D. decrease in the day's sales in inventory E. no change in the total asset turnover rate
accounts data bank accounts data bank Question 46. Which of the following statements is true regarding the payback period? A. The time value of money is considered when calculating the payback. B. The payback analysis is more accurate than the net present value analysis. C. The payback period is less accurate than the accounting rate of return. D. The time value of money is not considered when calculating the payback. Boccardi Inc., has invested in new pasta manufacturing equipment at a cost of $48,000. The equipment has an estimated useful life of eight years. Estimated annual sales and operating expenses related to the pasta equipment follow: 47. The estimated payback of the investment in the pasta equipment is: A. 3.0 years. B. 4.0 years. C. 6.0 years. D. 8.0 years. 48. The estimated accounting rate of return is: A. 12.5%. B. 18.0%. C. 25.0%. D. 33.3%. 49. In a capital budgeting decision, if a firm uses the net present value method and a 12% discount rate, what does a negative net present value indicate? A. The proposal's rate of return exceeds 12%. B. The proposal's rate of return is less than the minimum rate required. C. The proposal earns a rate of return between 10% and 12%. D. None of the above. 50. A capital budgeting decision method that considers the time value of money is the A. accounting rate of return method. B. return on stockholders' equity method. C. cash payback method. D. internal rate of return method. 51. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the internal rate of return in capital budgeting? A. It provides the same basic information as the net present value method. B. It calculates the net present value of future cash flows. C. It calculates the proposal's rate of return. D. It doesn't consider the time value of money. 52. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the net present value method in capital budgeting? A. It provides the same basic information as the accounting rate of return. B. It calculates the present value of future cash flows. C. It calculates the proposal's rate of return. D. It doesn't consider the time value of money. 53. Sometimes when management decisions are reached the investment project with the highest NPV or IRR is not selected. This occurs because: A. a lower IRR is a less risky investment. B. the highest NPV is not necessarily the highest IRR. C. qualitative factors override quantitative analysis techniques. D. sometimes management makes the wrong decision.
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. In developing an advertising program, marketing managers can make five major decisions known as the five Ms. Which of the following is NOT one of the five Ms? a. Mission b. Money c. Message d. Media e. Minimum 2. ________ is any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor. a. Advertising b. Prospecting c. Media d. Marketing e. Public Relations 3. Advertising objectives can be classified according to whether their aim is to inform, persuade, remind, or ________. a. create interest b. purchase c. create demand d. reinforce e. introduce 4. When setting the advertising budget, marketers must consider the________. a. message details b. cost of television time c. cost of new product development d. stage in the product life cycle e. buyer’s reaction to the campaign 5. In designing and evaluating an ad campaign, it is important to distinguish the message strategyor positioning of an ad from its ________. a. brand strategy b. creative strategy c. test strategy d. medium strategy e. corporate strategy 6. A creative briefis an elaboration of the positioning statement and includes such items as ________. a. key brand benefits b. detailed instructions for the director of the commercial c. detailed instructions for the print ads d. key actors to be used in the commercial e. none of the above 7. In deciding on an ad budget, marketers must recognize that consumer response can be ________-shaped: An ad threshold effect exists where some positive amount of advertising is necessary before any sales impact can be detected, but sales increases eventually flatten out. a. T b. M c. S d. Y e. C 8. A good ad normally focuses on one or two ________. a. important environmental factors b. subliminal messages c. core selling propositions d. easily identifiable celebrities e. consumer interest items 9. Television is the most powerful advertising medium. TV advertising can be a compelling means for dramatically portraying user and usage imagery, brand personality, and other brand ________. a. sounds b. sights c. intangibles d. tangibles e. components Print media provides much ________ product information and can also effectively communicate user and usage imagery. f. detailed g. specific h. informational i. historical j. usage 10. Of the elements of a print advertisement, the ________ matters the most when it comes to the ad’s effectiveness. a. headline b. copy c. picture d. font e. color 11. Radio’s main advantage lies in its ________. a. disk jockeys b. flexibility c. format d. age of audience e. none of the above 12. The obvious disadvantages of radio include ________. a. the relatively passive nature of the consumer processing b. excessive visual stimulus c. consumers’ ability to fast forward through advertisements d. consumers’ typical commitment to a single radio station e. all of the above 13. Under U.S. law, advertisers must not ________. a. copy other’s ads b. make false claims c. advertise to children d. advertise after 3 a.m. e. demonstrate a product 14. ________ is finding the most cost-effective media to deliver the desired number and types of exposures to the target audience. a. Weight b. Frequency c. Reach d. Media buying e. Media selection 15. Puffery is defined as ________. a. a description of a bakery product b. statements used in sales brochures to tout the benefits of a product c. simple exaggerations d. lies e. legal nontruths 16. In choosing the proper media to carry the message, advertisers must decide on ________. a. strategy, users, and media b. target markets, users, and heavy users c. markets, target markets, and consumers d. reach, impact, and television stations e. reach, frequency, and impactAnswer: 17. ________ is most important when launching new products, flanker brands, or extensions of well-known brands. a. Media selection b. Weighted exposures c. Impact d. Reach e. Frequency 18. The higher the ________ associated with a brand, product category, or message, the higher the warranted level of repetition. a. total number of exposures b. target audience media habits c. forgetting rate d. impact e. reach 19. One of the advantages of television is that it combines sight, sound, and motion, appealing to the senses, high attention, and high reach. One of the disadvantages of television is its ________. a. use of the “remote control” to zap through commercials b. high clutter c. cable channels d. fragmented markets e. censorship possibilities 20. One of the advantages of direct mail is audience selectivity. One of its limitations is ________. a. its short life b. poor reproduction quality c. high competition d. long ad purchase lead time e. relatively high cost 21. Marketers are using creative and unexpected ad placements to grab consumers’ attentions in ________ advertising. a. market-specific b. customer-specific c. space d. nontraditional e. place 22. Marketers pay fees so that their products make cameo appearances in movies and on television. This is called ________. a. branded entertainment b. point of purchase c. advertorials d. product placement e. individualization 23. In-store advertising, including ads on shopping carts, in aisles, on shelves, on the floor, and “talking” shelves, are all examples of ________ advertising. a. point-of-decision b. product-placement c. point-of-purchase d. branding e. advertising 24. The main advantage of nontraditional media is that a very precise and—because of the nature of the setting involved—captive audience often can be reached in a ________ manner. a. new b. effective c. cost-effective d. targeted e. individualized 25. Television audience size has several possible measures. These include circulation, audience, and ________. a. nonexposed audience b. total circulation c. exposed audience d. listening audience e. effective audience 26. Readers of Vogue may pay more attention to ads than do readers of Newsweek. In this example, Vogue has greater ________ than Newsweek. a. ad-placement policies b. editorial quality c. audience-attention probability d. audience quality e. lead generation 27. A media vehicle’s ________ refers to its prestige and believability. People are more likely to believe a TV or radio ad and to become more positively disposed toward the brand when the ad is placed within a program they like. a. ad-placement policies b. editorial quality c. audience-attention probability d. audience quality e. lead generation 28. ________ expresses the rate at which new buyers enter the market; the higher this rate, the more continuous the advertising should be. a. Buyer demographics b. Purchase frequency c. Purchase intent d. Buyer turnover e. Buyer profile The ________ is the rate at which the buyer forgets the brand. f. designated rate g. purchase frequency h. purge rate i. turnover rate j. forgetting rate 29. The term “concentration” when used in the context of advertising means that the advertiser will ________. a. run heavy advertising day and night for a short period of time b. spend all of the advertising dollars in a single period c. run all the ads for the product within a specific period of time d. spend all of the advertising dollars across a specific time period e. not spend all of the advertising dollars in a single period 30. ________ seeks to determine whether an ad is communicating effectively. a. Communications-effect research b. Marketing research c. Buyer research d. Consumer research e. Media research