post university ECO 201 macroeconomics unit 5 assignment post university ECO 201 macroeconomics unit 5 assignment Question Please submit your homework to the assignment link provided in this unit. Your homework is to:Answer Questions For Review #1 near the top of page 641Answer Questions For Review #1 in the middle of page 666·
business managment data bank business managment data bank Question In the future, one of the most important jobs in your company will be that of chief Web officer. (5 points) True False Given the fast pace of technology, it is recommended that web officers be made solely responsible individuals for spotting opportunities and exploiting them. (5 points) True False Perhaps the most important force to change in management is the growing need for using what has worked will in the past. (5 points) True False Best serving the customer can start with involving the customer more in company decisions. (5 points) True False The text describes the Net as a great way to communicate with customers but a terrible way to get new customers. (5 points) True False Efficiency is far more important than effectiveness in today's competitive environment. (5 points) True False Successful organizations do not have to pay close attention to how well they are doing. (5 points) True False As managers rise through an organization, they will probably rely less on their technical skills. (5 points) True False Problems in the interpersonal arena do not affect “fast-track” managers. (5 points) True False In today's work environment, one should only focus on becoming a specialist given that jobs are becoming so specialized. (5 points) True False Turtlewear, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, Turtlewear managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. Turtlewear managers have been engaged in the management function of: (5 points) a. Organizing b. Planning c. Goal Coordination d. Controlling e. All of the above Planning is (5 points) a. best focused on immediate goals. b. very broad and general in nature. c. necessary for large and small organizations. d. the responsibility of top management. e. seldom used in the "real world". As one of the key management functions, leading focuses on a manager's efforts to: (5 points) a. communicate with employees. b. motivate the workforce. c. direct employees' efforts. d. stimulate high performance. e. All of the above. _______ involves monitoring the progress of the organization toward goal attainment and implementing necessary changes. (5 points) a. Budgeting b. Planning c. Organizing d. Leading e. Controlling The reasons that different managers utilize varying techniques to manage include: (5 points) a. The organizational level that the manager works within causes her to emphasize some skills more than others. b. Different manager's personalities affect their preferred style of management. c. Managers have varying levels of education. d. Managers have varying levels of experience. e. All of the above affect management style. In smaller entrepreneurial firms, and even in more adaptive larger firms, managers (5 points) a. are no longer utilized. b. rely more heavily on technical skills. c. serve as "experts" on whom the firm depends. d. have strategic, tactical, and operational responsibilities. e. focus on internal operations. ______________ skills influence a manager's ability to work well with people. (5 points) a. Decisional b. Technical c. Interpersonal d. Professional e. Conceptual Top management at Media Blitz, Inc. recognized the importance of employee morale and developed methods to tap into employee ideas. The overall process of how the agency operated was altered by incorporating employee input. The ability to foster employee teamwork and to develop common strategic goals is an effective use of (5 points) a. adapter skills b. technical skills c. tactical skills d. conceptual and decision skills e. professional skills Some multinational organizations are considered "stateless." This means that they: (5 points) a. were incorporated outside of the United States b. once belonged to the Soviet Union which has been disbanded c. operate worldwide without reference to national borders d. have offices and/or production facilities in multiple states e. have offices and/or production facilities in multiple countries Which of the following provides a common path to career success in business today? (5 points) a. Taking a pure specialist approach b. Engineering c. Being a generalist without having any specialized knowledge d. A synthesis of various specialized functions into general management e. None of the above Portions copyright ©2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies. Any use is subject to the Terms of Use and Privacy Policy.
post university acc 111 final exam all 3 parts post university acc 111 final exam all 3 parts Question Final exam paart 1 · Question 1 3 out of 3 points A company was recently formed with $ 50,000 cash contributed to the company by stock-holders. The company then borrowed $ 20,000 from a bank and bought $ 10,000 of supplies on account. The company also purchased $ 50,000 of equipment by paying $ 20,000 in cash and issuing a note for the remainder. What is the amount of total assets to be reported on the balance sheet? · Question 2 3 out of 3 points A company purchases $23,000 of supplies in the current month and promises to pay for them next month. How would the company record a liability for the supplies? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: · Question 3 3 out of 3 points A company was recently formed with $ 100,000 cash contributed to the company by stock-holders. The company then borrowed $ 50,000 from a bank and bought a $ 20,000 vehicle for cash. They also purchased $10,000 of equipment by paying $ 2,000 in cash and issuing a note for the remainder. What is the amount of total assets to be reported on the balance sheet? · Question 4 3 out of 3 points A company has net sales of $500,000 and cost of goods sold of $400,000. The company’s gross profit percentage is: · Question 5 3 out of 3 points A $ 1,000 sale is made on May 1 with terms 2/ 10, n/ 30. What amount, if received on May 9, will be considered payment in full? · Question 6 3 out of 3 points The 200X records of Thompson Company showed beginning inventory of $6,000, cost of goods sold of $14,000 and ending inventory of $8,000. The cost of purchases for 200X was: · Question 7 3 out of 3 points Post Company began the current month with $10,000 in inventory, then purchased inventory at a cost of $35,000. The inventory at the end of the month was $20,000.The cost of goods sold would be: · Question 8 3 out of 3 points A company lends its CEO $150,000 for 3 years at a 6% annual interest rate. Interest payments are to be made twice a year. Each interest payment will be for: · Question 9 3 out of 3 points Post Company lends Blue Company $40,000 on April 1, accepting a 4 month, 4.5% interest note.Post Company prepares financial statements on April 30.What adjusting entry should they make? · Question 10 3 out of 3 points On January 1, 200X Jones Company purchased a machine for $20,000. The machine had a salvage value of $2,000 and a useful life of 5 years. Using straight line depreciation, the accounting entry for recording depreciation expense for 200X would be: · Question 11 3 out of 3 points Post Company uses straight- line depreciation for all of its depreciable assets.Post sold a piece of machinery on December 31, 2009, that it purchased on January 1, 2009 for $ 2,000. The asset had a five year life and zero residual value. Accumulated depreciation was $400.If the sales price of the used machine was $ 1,200, the resulting gain or loss on disposal was which of the following amounts? · Question 12 3 out of 3 points On July 1, 200X you enter into a note payable of $200,000 with a 5% annual interest rate. Your interest expense for 200X will be: · Question 13 3 out of 3 points Post Company issues a 6 year, 6%, $200,000 bond at par on July 31. How much interest will be paid over the life of the bond? · · · · · Final exam part2 · Question 1 3 out of 3 points The accounting equation is: · Question 2 3 out of 3 points The Statement of Retained earnings shows: · Question 3 3 out of 3 points The Income Statement shows: · Question 4 3 out of 3 points Which of the following regarding retained earnings is false? Response Feedback: Retained earnings is an equity account, not an asset. · Question 5 3 out of 3 points In regard to current liabilities which of the following is false? · Question 6 3 out of 3 points Which of the following are current assets? · Question 7 3 out of 3 points In reference to accrual accounting which of the following is true? · Question 8 3 out of 3 points During November 200X John painted a barn. The customer does not pay John until January this next year. Which of the following statements is correct? · Question 9 3 out of 3 points Payment of a dividend will: Final exam part 3 · · · · Question 1 3 out of 3 points A company was recently formed with $ 50,000 cash contributed to the company by stock-holders. The company then borrowed $ 20,000 from a bank and bought $ 10,000 of supplies on account. The company also purchased $ 50,000 of equipment by paying $ 20,000 in cash and issuing a note for the remainder. What is the amount of total assets to be reported on the balance sheet? · Question 2 3 out of 3 points A company purchases $23,000 of supplies in the current month and promises to pay for them next month. How would the company record a liability for the supplies? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: · Question 3 3 out of 3 points A company was recently formed with $ 100,000 cash contributed to the company by stock-holders. The company then borrowed $ 50,000 from a bank and bought a $ 20,000 vehicle for cash. They also purchased $10,000 of equipment by paying $ 2,000 in cash and issuing a note for the remainder. What is the amount of total assets to be reported on the balance sheet? · Question 4 3 out of 3 points A company has net sales of $500,000 and cost of goods sold of $400,000. The company’s gross profit percentage is: · Question 5 3 out of 3 points A $ 1,000 sale is made on May 1 with terms 2/ 10, n/ 30. What amount, if received on May 9, will be considered payment in full? · Question 6 3 out of 3 points The 200X records of Thompson Company showed beginning inventory of $6,000, cost of goods sold of $14,000 and ending inventory of $8,000. The cost of purchases for 200X was: · Question 7 3 out of 3 points Post Company began the current month with $10,000 in inventory, then purchased inventory at a cost of $35,000. The inventory at the end of the month was $20,000.The cost of goods sold would be: · Question 8 3 out of 3 points A company lends its CEO $150,000 for 3 years at a 6% annual interest rate. Interest payments are to be made twice a year. Each interest payment will be for: · Question 9 3 out of 3 points Post Company lends Blue Company $40,000 on April 1, accepting a 4 month, 4.5% interest note.Post Company prepares financial statements on April 30.What adjusting entry should they make? · Question 10 3 out of 3 points On January 1, 200X Jones Company purchased a machine for $20,000. The machine had a salvage value of $2,000 and a useful life of 5 years. Using straight line depreciation, the accounting entry for recording depreciation expense for 200X would be: · Question 11 3 out of 3 points Post Company uses straight- line depreciation for all of its depreciable assets.Post sold a piece of machinery on December 31, 2009, that it purchased on January 1, 2009 for $ 2,000. The asset had a five year life and zero residual value. Accumulated depreciation was $400.If the sales price of the used machine was $ 1,200, the resulting gain or loss on disposal was which of the following amounts? · Question 12 3 out of 3 points On July 1, 200X you enter into a note payable of $200,000 with a 5% annual interest rate. Your interest expense for 200X will be: · Question 13 3 out of 3 points Post Company issues a 6 year, 6%, $200,000 bond at par on July 31. How much interest will be paid over the life of the bond?
uop OI/361 week 5 assignment uop OI/361 week 5 assignment Question Week Five: Creating and Sustaining an Innovative Organizational Culture Details Due Points Objectives 1 1.1 Assess leadership’s role in creating, managing, and sustaining an innovative organization. 1.2 Differentiate between noninnovative and innovative organizations. 11/14 Reading Read Ch. 21 of Managing Innovation, Design and Creativity. 11/14 Reading Read Ch. 27 of Managing Innovation, Design and Creativity. 11/14 Reading Read Ch. 30 of Managing Innovation, Design and Creativity. 11/14 Participation Participate in class discussion. 11/14 3 Individual Organizational Transformation Q & A Write a 700- to 1,050-word response to the following questions: · How would you identify and characterize the roles of incentives, training, and education in promoting innovation in your organization? · What is the role of leadership in creating, managing, and sustaining innovation in your organization? · What are the ethical implications of an individual reward system? Support your answer. · Would you describe your organization as innovative or noninnovative? Explain your answer. Format your response consistent with APAguidelines.. 11/14 6 Learning Team Innovation Process Presentation Use the sameVirtualOrganization your team selected in the previous weeks’ assignments. Prepare a 15- to 20-minute Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation accompanied by 8–12 slides. Identify and discuss the four basic phases of the Phased Project Planning process. Explain how you will apply the innovative process to change your selected organization. Identify the appropriate tools and techniquesyou will use in this process and explain why these were selected. Discuss how you will measure your results and what steps your selected organization will take to ensure continuous improvement. Include detailed speaker notes with your presentation. Format your presentation consistent with APAguidelines. 11/14 15
accounts data bank accounts data bank Question 1. You plan to analyze the value of a potential investment by calculating the sum of the present values of its expected cash flows. Which of the following would lower the calculated value of the investment? a. The cash flows are in the form of a deferred annuity, and they total to $100,000. You learn that the annuity lasts for only 5 rather than 10 years, hence that each payment is for $20,000 rather than for $10,000. The discount rate increases. c. The riskiness of the investment’s cash flows decreases. d. The total amount of cash flows remains the same, but more of the cash flows are received in the earlier years and less are received in the later years. e. The discount rate decreases. 2.Your bank account pays an 8% nominal rate of interest. The interest is compounded quarterly. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The periodic rate of interest is 2% and the effective rate of interest is 4%. b. The periodic rate of interest is 8% and the effective rate of interest is greater than 8%. c. The periodic rate of interest is 4% and the effective rate of interest is less than 8%. d The periodic rate of interest is 2% and the effective rate of interest is greater than 8%. e. The periodic rate of interest is 8% and the effective rate of interest is also 8%. 3.Which of the following investments would have thehighest future valueat the end of 10 years? Assume that the effective annual rate for all investments is the same and is greater than zero. a Investment A pays $250 at the beginning of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments). b. Investment B pays $125 at the end of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments). c. Investment C pays $125 at the beginning of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments). d. Investment D pays $2,500 at the end of 10 years (just one payment). e. Investment E pays $250 at the end of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments). 4.You deposit $1,000 today in a savings account that pays 3.5% interest, compounded annually. How much will your account be worth at the end of 25 years? a. $2,245.08 b $2,363.24 c. $2,481.41 d. $2,605.48 e. $2,735.75 5. Suppose the real risk-free rate is 2.50% and the future rate of inflation is expected to be constant at 3.05%. What rate of return would you expect on a 5-year Treasury security, assuming the pure expectations theory is valid? Disregard cross-product terms, i.e., if averaging is required, use the arithmetic average. a. 5.15% b. 5.25% c. 5.35% d. 5.45% 5.55% r = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP r = 2.50% + 3.05% = 5.55% 6. Suppose the real risk-free rate is 3.50%, the average future inflation rate is 2.25%, and a maturity premium of 0.10% per year to maturity applies, i.e., MRP = 0.10%(t), where t is the years to maturity. What rate of return would you expect on a 1-year Treasury security, assuming the pure expectations theory is NOT valid? Disregard cross-product terms, i.e., if averaging is required, use the arithmetic average. a. 5.75% b5.85% c. 5.95% d. 6.05% e. 6.15% r = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP r = 3.50% + 2.25% + 0 + 0 + .10% = 5.85% 7. The real risk-free rate is 2.50%, inflation is expected to be 3.00% this year, and the maturity risk premium is zero. Taking account of the cross-product term, i.e., not ignoring it, what is the equilibrium rate of return on a 1-year Treasury bond? a. 4.975% b. 5.175% c. 5.375% d.5.575% e. 5.775% (1 + r) = (1 + r*) ( 1+ IP) (1+r) = (1.025) (1.03) = 1.05575 - 1 = 5.575% <>8.Suppose the U.S. Treasury offers to sell you a bond for $3,000.No payments will be made until the bond matures 10 years from now, at which time it will be redeemed for $5,000.What interest rate would you earn if you bought this bond at the offer price? a. 3.82% b. 4.25% c. 4.72% d.5.24% e. 5.77% n = 10 i = ? PV = -3000 PMT = 0 FV = 5000 Solve for "i" which will be 5.2410 % 9. Keys Corporation's 5-year bonds yield 6.50%, and T-bonds with the same maturity yield 4.40%. The default risk premium for Keys' bonds is DRP = 0.40%, the liquidity premium on Keys' bonds is LP = 1.70% versus zero on T-bonds, inflation premium (IP) is 1.5%, and the maturity risk premium (MRP) on 5-year bonds is 0.40%. What is the real risk-free rate, r*? a. 2.10% b. 2.20% c. 2.30% d. 2.40% e.. 2.50% Simply subtract the IP of 1.50% and the MRP of .40% from the T-bond yield of 4.40% to arrive at 2.50% 10. The Carter Company's bonds mature in 10 years have a par value of $1,000 and an annual coupon payment of $80.The market interest rate for the bonds is 9%.What is the price of these bonds? a $935.82 b. $941.51 c. $958.15 d. $964.41 e. $979.53
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. The Securities and Exchange Commission is responsible for: A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D 2. Which regulation created the Securities and Exchange Commission? A. Securities Act of 1933 B. Securities Exchange Act of 1934 C. Investment Company Act of 1940 D. Garn-St. Germain Depository Institutions Act of 1982 3. Which system helps the SEC accomplish its primary purpose of increasing the efficiency and fairness of the securities markets by expediting the receipt, acceptance, dissemination, and analysis of time-sensitive data filed with it? A. EDI B. ESEC C. EDGAR D. EMMA 4. Which of the following divisions of the SEC regulates national securities exchanges, brokers, and dealers of securities? A. Division of Investment Management B. Division of Corporation Finance C. Division of Corporation Regulation D. Division of Market Regulation 5. Which division of the SEC develops and administers the disclosure requirements for the securities acts and reviews all registration statements and other issue-oriented disclosures? A. Division of Enforcement B. Division of Corporation Finance C. Division of Investment Management D. Division of Market Regulation 6. Identify the regulation that created an entity which insures investors from possible losses if an investment house enters bankruptcy. A. Federal Deposit Insurance Protection Act B. Securities Investor Protection Act C. Investment Advisers Act D. Federal Bankruptcy Acts 7. Regulation S-X and Regulation S-K: A. govern the preparation of financial statements and associated disclosures. B. govern the registration requirements for private placements. C. outline responsibilities for audit committees of publicly held companies. D. prohibit artificial pyramids of capital in public utilities. 8. Which regulation resulted in the creation of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board? A. Investment Advisers Act B. Securities Investor Protection Act C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act D. Trust Indenture Act 9. Regulation S-X presents the rules for preparing all of the following except: A. financial statements. B. footnotes. C. auditor's report. D. management's discussion. 10. The preparation of which of the following items is covered by Regulation S-K? A. Descriptions of business B. Pro forma disclosures C. Schedules D. Reports of accountants 11. Which of the following presents the results of actions taken against accountants, brokers, and other participants for filing false or misleading statements? A. Financial Reporting Releases B. Financial Reporting Interpretations C. Accounting and Auditing Enforcement Releases D. Staff Accounting Bulletins 12. Which of the following covers new or revised administrative practices and interpretations used by the SEC staff in reviewing financial statements? A. Securities Exchange Act releases B. Exchange Act industry guides C. Accounting and Auditing Enforcement Releases D. Staff Accounting Bulletins 13. In the issuer's annual report, how many years of audited financial statements must be presented? I. Three years of audited income statements II. Two years of audited balance sheets III. Three years of audited statements of cash flows A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III 14. Which of the following types of securities or securities transactions are exempt from the need to be registered under the Securities Act of 1933? I. Commercial paper with a maturity of nine months or less. II. Intrastate issues in which the securities are offered and sold only within one state. III. Securities exchanged by an issuer exclusively with its existing shareholders with no commission charged. A. I and II B. II C. I, II, and III D. III 15. Regulation D of the SEC presents important exemptions from full registration requirements for: A. private placements. B. issuances of securities by savings and loan associations. C. issuances of securities by common carriers regulated by the Interstate Commerce Commission. D. foreign companies.
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. Which of the following statements regarding incentive systems is false? a. Bonuses are often used at the executive levels. b. About half of all American manufacturing firms use productivity incentives. c. Knowledge-based pay systems are increasing in use. d. The Scanlon plan is based on team productivity. e. Increasing use of cross-training has led to increasing use of knowledge-based pay systems. / 2. Ergonomics is not concerned with a. levels of illumination, noise, temperature, and humidity b. adjusting and providing input to the machine c. feedback (providing information to the operator) d. adequate compensation schemes e. the design of functional and comfortable office furniture / 3. One of the elements of ergonomics is a. allocating work time based on economic studies b. the cost justification of technology c. designing tools and machines that facilitate human work d. the use of automation in a manufacturing organization e. the establishment of time standards / 4. Managers should seek to control such work environment factors as a. illumination b. noise and vibration c. temperature d. air quality e. all of the above / 5. Which of the following is not an analytical target of methods analysis? a. movement of capital b. body movement c. movement of individuals d. movement of materials e. crew activity / 6. Methods analysis focuses on a. the design of the machines used to perform a task b. establishing time standards c. reducing the number of skills needed for the completion of a task d. issues such as the movement of individuals or materials e. evaluating training programs to see if they are efficient / 7. Which of the following is used by methods analysis in analyzing body movement at the workstation level? a. MTM chart b. flow diagram c. operations chart d. process chart e. improvement chart / 8. "Designed to show economy of motion by pointing out waste motion and idle time" describes a. flow diagrams b. an activity chart c. an operations chart d. all of the above e. none of the above / 9. In a large aerospace company, it has been discovered that some insulators have been damaged. A methods specialist is sent out to follow the insulators through the production and storage processes and to try to find out where in the process they are damaged. The specialist should use a. left- and right-hand charts b. program flowcharts c. job analysis charts d. flow diagrams e. activity charts / 10. Methods analysis employs which of the following charts in its analysis of the movement of workers and materials? a. micro-motion chart b. flow diagram c. activity chart d. man-machine chart e. movement chart / 11. Flow diagrams are used to analyze a. movement of people and materials b. utilization of an operator and machine c. body movements d. time taken by various activities e. unnecessary micro-motions / 12. Activity charts help analyze a. movement of people and materials b. utilization of an operator and machine c. body movements d. activities that can cause injuries e. unnecessary micro-motions / 13. "Schematic used to investigate movement of people or material" describes a(n) a. flow chart b. activity chart c. operations chart d. right-hand / left-hand chart e. none of the above / 14. The visual workplace includes a. painted symbols to indicate the proper place for tools and equipment b. labeling of parts, bins, and tools to reduce waste c. kanbans, andons, and statistical process control (SPC) charts d. color-coded lights and signs to indicate that there is a problem e. all of the above / 15. Shadow boards and foot printing are elements of a. the Hawthorne studies b. workplace noise reduction c. project management in service firms d. the visual workplace e. specialization of labor / 16. The visual workplace a. uses low-cost visual devices to share information b. is an effective means of rapid communication in a dynamic workplace c. helps with both "big picture" and "housekeeping" issues in the workplace d. eliminates non-value added activities by making problems and standards visual e. all of the above / 17. Ethical work environment decisions by managers may be guided by a. state agencies b. trade associations c. insurers d. employees e. all of the above / 18. Which of the following is an ergonomics issue with ethical implications? a. job enrichment b. equal opportunity c. equal pay for equal work d. a noisy workplace e. foot printing / 19. Which of the following is not a work environment issue with ethical implications? a. hazardous materials in the workplace b. equal opportunity c. equal pay for equal work d. danger on the job e. All of the above have ethical implications. / 20. Labor standards are defined as the a. preset activities required to perform a job b. amount of space required by a specific crew to perform the job c. standard set of procedures to perform the job d. standard labor agreements e. amount of time required to perform a job or part of a job /
Which one of the following stages of the management decision-making process Which one of the following stages of the management decision-making process Question 1. (TCO 9) Which one of the following stages of the management decision-making process is properly sequenced? (Points : 4) Evaluate possible courses of action, make decisionReview the actual impact of the decision, determine possible courses of actionAssign responsibility for the decision, identify the problemMake a decision, assign responsibility 2. (TCO 9) Which one of the following is a true statement about incremental analysis? (Points : 4) It is another name for capital budgeting.It is the same as CVP analysis.It is used primarily for long-term planning.It focuses on decisions that involve a choice among alternative courses of action. 3. (TCO 9) Which of the following will never be a relevant cost? (Points : 4) Opportunity costSunk costVariable costFixed cost4. (TCO 9) A company is considering replacing old equipment with new equipment. Which of the following is a relevant cost for incremental analysis? (Points : 4) Total accumulated depreciation of the old equipmentCost of the old equipmentAnnual operating cost of the new equipmentBook value of the old equipment 5. (TCO 9) Seville Company manufactures a product with a unit variable cost of $42 and a unit sales price of $75. Fixed manufacturing costs were $80,000 when 10,000 units were produced and sold, equating to $8 per unit. The company has a one-time opportunity to sell an additional 1,000 units at $55 each in an international market, which would not affect its present sales. The company has sufficient capacity to produce the additional units. How much is the relevant income effect of accepting the special order? (Points : 4) $42,000$13,000$5,000$50,000 6. (TCO 9) Hungry Bites produces corn chips. The cost of one batch is below: Direct Materials $14Direct Labor 10Variable Overhead 9Fixed Overhead 10 An outside supplier has offered to produce the corn chips for $20 per batch. If all fixed costs can be eliminated, how much will Hungry Bites save if it accepts the offer? (Points : 4) $10 per batch$13 per batch$23 per batch$4 per batch 7. (TCO 9) Whisker Clean Company spent $8,000 to produce product 89, which can be sold as is for $10,000 or processed further, incurring additional costs of $3,000, and then sold for $14,000. Which amounts are relevant to the decision about product 89? (Points : 4) $8,000, $10,000, and $14,000$8,000, $3,000, and $14,000$10,000, $3,000, and $14,000$8,000, $10,000, $3,000, and $14,000 8. (TCO 8) The capital budget for the year is approved by a company's __________ (Points : 4) board of directors.capital budgeting committee.officers.stockholders. 9. (TCO 8) The first step in the capital budgeting evaluation process is to __________ (Points : 4) request proposals for projects.screen proposals by a capital budgeting committee.determine which projects are worthy of funding.approve the capital budget. 10. (TCO 8) If a payback period for a project is greater than its expected useful life, the __________ (Points : 4) project will always be profitable.entire initial investment will not be recovered.project would only be acceptable if the company's cost of capital was low.project's return will always exceed the company's cost of capital. 11. (TCO 8) All of the following statements about intangible benefits in capital budgeting are correct, except that they __________ (Points : 4) include increased quality and employee loyalty.are difficult to quantify.are often ignored in capital-budgeting decisions.cannot be incorporated into the NPV calculation. 12. (TCO 8) The capital-budgeting method that allows comparison of the relative desirability of projects that require differing initial investments is the __________ (Points : 4) cash-payback method.internal rate of return method.net present value method.profitability index. 13. (TCO 8) A post audit should be performed using __________ (Points : 4) a different evaluation technique than that used in making the original decision.the same evaluation technique used in making the original decision.estimated amounts instead of actual figures.an independent CPA. 14. (TCO 8) A company has a minimum required rate of return of 9% and is considering investing in a project that costs $140,000 and is expected to generate cash inflows of $56,000 at the end of each year for 3 years. The net present value of this project is __________ (Points : 4) $141,736.$28,000.$14,174.$1,752. 15. (TCO 8) The annual rate of return method is based on __________ (Points : 4) accounting data.the time value of money data.market values.cash flow data.
Part A (1000 words) (50 marks) Part A (1000 words) (50 marks) Question Part A(1000 words)Watts and Zimmerman’s ‘The Demand and Supply of Accounting Theories: The Market for Excuses’ suggested the ‘normative’ project of accounting academics and other social critics of corporate accounting practice to be invalid; that there are no objective grounds in accounting theory for judging accounting practice as ‘good’ or ‘bad’; all such judgements are mere excuses or apologies for advancing the interests of particular social constituencies, couched in a language of academic impartiality and objectivity.Tony Tinker [Policing Accounting Knowledge: the market for excuses affair] has suggested that the positive accounting theory proposed by Watts and Zimmerman is being replaced by a new paradigm: one that emphasises usefulness, vocational training and practical application.Contrast ‘normative’ theories with ‘positive accounting’ theory. Have we moved to a new paradigm and if so what is it.Part B(1000)Consider the concept of historic cost and discuss the following questionsq The historical cost model and its applicationq The reasons for the dominance of the historical cost model, and the arguments against the modelq Historical cost valuation issues, and the equity perspective adoptedq Criticisms of historical cost accounting.Mind MapPart A (50marks)Assessment criteria1000 words max.Excellent(HD)Very Good(D)Good(C)Satisfactory(P)Unsatisfactory(F)1. Introduction (5)2. Body/Discussion (15)Criticalevaluation of topic3. Conclusion (5)4. Examples (5)6. Referencing, citations (5)7. Evidence of reading, quality and quantity (10)8. English expression, coherence, grammar and spelling. Logical flow of ideas (5)Part B (50marks)Assessment criteria1000 words max.Excellent(HD)Very Good(D)Good(C)Satisfactory(P)Unsatisfactory(F)1. Introduction (5)2. Body/Discussion (15)Criticalevaluation of topic3. Conclusion (5)4. Examples (5)6. Referencing, citations (5)7. Evidence of reading, quality and quantity (10)8. English expression, coherence, grammar and spelling. Logical flow of ideas (5)
Ashford Entire Course BUS 611 Ashford Entire Course BUS 611 Question I need the entire course for BUS 611 Project Planning & Management through Ashford University. I need both discussions and assignments.