Category: Uncategorized

general business data bank

Question
	
71. Jorge purchased a copyright for use in his business in
the current year. The purchase occurred on July

15th and the purchase price was $75,000. If the patent has a
remaining life of 75 months, what is the total

amortization expense Jorge may deduct during the current
year?

A. $0

B. $5,500

C. $6,000

D. $12,000

E. None of the above

72. Geithner LLC patented a process it developed in the
current year. The patent is expected to create

benefits for Geithner over a 10 year period. The patent was
issued on April 15th and the legal costs

associated with the patent were $43,000. In addition,
Geithner had unamortized research expenditures of

$15,000 related to the process. What is the total
amortization expense Geithner may deduct during the

current year?

A. $2,417

B. $2,559

C. $4,108

D. $4,350

E. None of the above

73. Santa Fe purchased the rights to extract turquoise on a
tract of land over a five-year period. Santa Fe

paid $300,000 for extraction rights. A geologist estimates
that Santa Fe will recover 5,000 pounds of

turquoise. During the current year, Santa Fe extracted 1,500
pounds of turquoise, which it sold for

$200,000. What is Santa Fe's cost depletion expense for the
current year?

A. $60,000

B. $90,000

C. $110,000

D. $300,000

E. None of the above

74. Santa Fe purchased the rights to extract turquoise on a
tract of land over a five-year period. Santa Fe

paid $300,000 for extraction rights. A geologist estimated
that Santa Fe will recover 5,000 pounds of

turquoise. During the past several years, 4,000 pounds were
extracted. During the current year, Santa

Fe extracted 1,500 pounds of turquoise, which it sold for
$250,000. What is Santa Fe's cost depletion

expense for the current year?

A. $60,000

B. $90,000

C. $190,000

D. $160,000

E. None of the above

75. Lucky Strike Mine (LLC) purchased a silver deposit for
$1,500,000. It estimated it would extract 500,000

ounces of silver from the deposit. Lucky Strike mined the
silver and sold it reporting gross receipts of

$1.8 million, $2.5 million, and $2 million for years 1
through 3, respectively. During years 1 - 3, Lucky

Strike reported net income (loss) from the silver deposit
activity in the amount of ($100,000), $400,000,

and $100,000, respectively. In years 1 - 3, Lucky Strike
actually extracted 300,000 ounces of silver as

follows:

What is Lucky Strike's depletion expense for year 2 if the
applicable percentage depletion for silver is 15

percent?

A. $200,000

B. $375,000

C. $400,000

D. $450,000

E. None of the above

76. Janey purchased machinery on April 8th of the current
year. The relevant costs for the year are as follows:

machinery for $10,000, $800 shipping, $50 for delivery
insurance, $500 for installation, $750 for sales

tax, $150 for the annual tune up, and $200 of property taxes
(an annual tax on business property). What is

Janey's tax basis for the machinery?

77. Jaussi purchased a computer several years ago for $2,200
and used it for personal purposes. On

November 10th of the current year, when the fair market
value of the computer was $800, Jaussi

converted it to business use. What is Jaussi's tax basis for
the computer?

78. Flax, LLC purchased only one asset during 2011. It
placed in service a computer (5-year property) on

January 16 with a basis of $14,000. Calculate the maximum
depreciation expense (ignoring section 179

and bonus expensing).

79. Roth, LLC purchased only one asset during the current
year. It placed in service computer equipment (5-

year property) on November 1st with a basis of $42,500.
Calculate the maximum depreciation expense

(ignoring section 179 and bonus expensing).

80. Eddie purchased only one asset during the current year.
It placed in service furniture (7-year property)

on May 1st with a basis of $26,500. Calculate the maximum
depreciation expense, rounded to the nearest

whole number (ignoring section 179 and bonus expensing).
	

ACC 410 Assignment 1: Financial Statement / Audit Report Review

Question
	
ACC 410 – Government and Not-for-Profit Accounting
Assignment 1: Financial Statement / Audit Report Review
Due Week 4 and worth 240 points

Select a local government in your state and review the financial statements and audit report for the county or municipality. The financial statements of the government selected should have at least three funds. 
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you: 1. Analyze the method of accounting used for the general fund and all other funds in existence by the government. Evaluate the reasoning for the use of the method of accounting for each of the funds as required by GAASB. 2. Assess the application and compliance of GASB Statement 34, Basic Financial Statements and Management Decisions and Analysis for State and Local Governments to each of the funds. 3. Evaluate management’s discussion and analysis (MD&A). In your evaluation, analyze the significant information in the MD&A and how the information contributed to the clarity of the financial statements. From your analysis of financial statements, identify and analyze information that should be included in the statements. 4. Determine whether the entity’s financial position improved or deteriorated during the reporting period. Speculate on the causes from your review of the financial statements.
	

Management_5689_6Dec_3rd

Question
	61. Diversity management can be improved by:
a) getting middle management to value diversity.
b) implementing work teams.
c) raising sensitivity of managers to the global nature of the marketplace.
d) companies actively accommodating family needs.
e) conducting human resource audits.
62. The best diversity management strategy for helping women to keep their jobs after starting a
family is:
a) senior mentoring.
b) communication standards.
c) accommodating family needs.
d) diversity training.
e) support groups.
63. When viewing HRM from a global perspective, U.S. efforts to create a family-friendly workplace:
a) compare favorably to European nations.
b) are very weak in comparison to Germany, Sweden, and Denmark.
c) are actually quite advanced compared to any European country.
d) tend to focus on daycare, while European countries tend to focus on leaves and flexible work
hours.
e) tend to focus on telecommuting, while European countries tend to focus on creative leave
programs.
64. Flextime and telecommuting are examples of companies’ efforts to:
a) accommodate family needs.
b) value diversity.
c) recognize the global nature of HRM.
d) manage responsibility and accountability.
e) prevent “white male bashing.”
65. Which of the following is an option to accommodate family needs?
a) Extended leave
b) Diversity training
c) Apprenticeships
d) A mentoring program
e) A diversity audit
66. Jamie has been a manager at a large firm for nearly 10 years. After a recent hiring period, he
identifies a new employee named Carlos who shows potential for administration and advancement in
the company. During the next three years, he coaches and encourages Carlos at his job, answers
questions, and helps Carlos develop a career strategy. This is an example of:
a) stereotyping.
b) development of communication standards.
c) an apprenticeship.
d) mentoring.
e) none of the above
67. A strategy to improve diversity management in a company which can be implemented even
before a given individual becomes an employee is:
a) communication standards.
b) senior mentoring.
c) diversity training.
d) apprenticeships.
e) recruiting quotas.
68. The culture of diversity for an organization can often be seen in which of the following?
a) Organization charts
b) Communication standards
c) Dress codes
d) Office furniture
e) Computer use policies

69. Sources of bias in an organization can often be uncovered through which of the following?
a) A diversity audit
b) Training
c) Policy making
d) A job analysis
e) The reward system
 70. When presenting non-majority groups in chapter 4, your text does so in alphabetical
order. This is probably a ______ used to present each group fairly without appearing to present them in
a preferential order.
a) communication standard
b) diversity presentation
c) preferential standard
d) discriminatory order
e) social order
71. A diversity audit can help managers:
a) determine possible sources of bias in a company.
b) review the effectiveness of a company’s diversity management program.
c) increase minority retention.
d) determine whether there will be an increase in competition for opportunities.
e) a and b
72. One way to guarantee managers’ buy-in and reinforcement of diversity efforts is to:
a) put them through diversity training.
b) hold them accountable for the programs’ success.
c) create support groups with managers leading them.
d) conduct a diversity audit.
e) avoid white male bashing.
73. While diversity programs offer companies a number of benefits, some potential pitfalls also
arise, such as:
a) promoting of competition for opportunities.
b) generating reverse discrimination suits.
c) promoting stereotypes.
d) creating communication barriers.
e) segmenting communication networks.
--
74. Some assume that one can infer an individual’s motivations, interests, values, behavioral traits,
etc., based on the individual’s group membership. This practice is called:
a) cultural determinism.
b) recognizing one’s cognitive structure.
c) seeing one’s cognitive perception.
d) discrimination.
e) cultural awareness.
75. Diversity training and cultural awareness programs, in general, tend to:
a) cause “white male bashing.”
b) improve employee and management relations in all sections of society.
c) overdramatize diversity and unintentionally help people form incorrect assumptions about
members of other groups.
d) encourage diversity programs and employee interaction, but produce very few long-term results.
e) none of the above
CASE QUESTIONS
Case 4.1
As the Director of HR, you are leading a management discussion to plan and implement a management
of diversity program.. You are concerned that management, while tolerant, tends to stereotype
minorities and this will eventually lead to trouble. Your company’s top three markets are in Los Angeles,
Chicago, and Miami. All three are heavily Latino in make-up. The senior management team is all male.
The youngest member is 58 years of age.
Martinez, the VP of Operations, feels that people should blend together and that focusing on differences
merely creates divisions. He thinks that you should have a common training program to create a unified
“American” company culture. Patrick, VP of Finance, doesn’t see the need for a program. He respects
that people are different but he feels that once you get to know a Hispanic, African-American, or Asian-American, you know how to work with any Hispanic, African-American, or Asian-American. Besides,
Patrick doesn’t believe the company should get into affirmative action programs. They tried it ten years
ago and it created all kinds of problems.
Simon, the CEO, thinks a diversity management program is important. He believes the company is
missing some important talent without such a program. Simon feels that the company can create a
competitive advantage by being in the lead on this issue and also believes the changing workforce is
going to force such adjustments at some time in the future.
76. Refer to Case 4.1. Martinez’s approach to diversity management:
a) is based on a perspective that people can control the factors that make them diverse.
b) assumes that the company does not need to worry about diversity because
demographic trends are moving away from it.
c) expresses the belief that the key to understanding diversity is understanding each
individual’s group membership.
d) is based on his experience with affirmative action programs.
e) reflects the competition for opportunities among minority groups.
77. Refer to Case 4.1. John, on the other hand, seems to be directed by:
a) his belief that people can control the factors that make them diverse.
b) the fact that demographic trends are forcing the company to recognize diversity.
c) the legal responsibilities the company has to develop opportunities for minorities.
d) his own cognitive structure.
e) the competition for opportunities among minority groups.
78. Refer to Case 4.1.The HR director’s perspective is:
a) a concern for the legal issues involved.
b) an understanding of the difference between diversity and the sources of diversity.
c) that diversity management is not an issue for this company.
d) a belief that people cannot control factors that lead to diversity.
e) the influence of Martinez’s cognitive structure.
79. Refer to Case 4.1. What other management concern is Simon apparently considering when he
says that the company needs to create a diversity management program?
a) That it is legally mandated
b) Their past negative experience with affirmative action
c) The concept of the melting pot in American culture
d) That the company make-up should reflect their markets to gain a competitive advantage
e) The apparent racism of his two top managers

80. Refer to Case 4.1. The best place for this increase-in-diversity awareness and training to begin is
with:
a) top management learning to value diversity.
b) support groups.
c) accommodation of family needs.
d) senior mentoring programs.
e) communication standards.
Case 4.2
MGN, Inc. is a Fortune 500 company that has just come to realize its need for managing diversity. HR is
facilitating meetings among middle managers to both communicate this idea and to get input from the
managers about how best to carry out this goal.
Mercedes, a Latina manager, suggests that the company ought not to do more than what is already
being done. She cites the company’s previous affirmative action plan. “Also,” she argues, “we’ve given
African-Americans and Asian-Americans more than enough opportunity. I tried to promote a Latino
to supervisor and you guys (HR dept.) told me I really needed to give Kym, an African-American, the
opportunity.”
Paul, a white supervisor, feels that management is management. Managing diversity is just a gimmick,
a passing fad. “I've been a supervisor for 20 years and I’ve found that if I treat people fairly and listen to
them, things work out just fine.”
Ana, a relatively new middle-manager, is a bit more positive about the idea but has significant
reservations. She feels, however, that the company really needs to give women and minorities access
to the “old boy network.” If all the company does is conduct training and devise slogans, nothing will
happen.
Finally, Rahkim, an African-American supervisor, says he doesn’t care what they do. He’s giving
notice because he’s joining some other African-Americans in starting their own company. He’s been
a supervisor for five years and has been passed over for promotion twice. He feels that he has
experienced discrimination because he’s African-American.
81. Refer to Case 4.2. The above shows a number of challenges to implementing a managing
diversity program. Mercedes’ concerns represent which of the following challenges?
a) Valuing diversity
b) Individual vs. group fairness
c) Segmented communication networks
d) Focusing on performance
e) Competition for opportunities
:
82. Refer to Case 4.2. The manager(s) in this discussion who would most likely agree with the
universal concept of management is(are):
a) Mercedes.
b) Paul.
c) Ana.
d) Rahkim.
e) Mercedes and Ana.
83. Refer to Case 4.2. Ana’s concerns reflect the reality of the experiences of women and
minorities with:
a) individual versus group fairness.
b) the resistance to change.
c) segmented communication networks.
d) resentment.
e) retention.
84. Refer to Case 4.2. Rahkim’s lack of concern with this issue and his announcement symbolize the
organization’s general problem with:
a) valuing diversity.
b) interpersonal conflict.
c) resentment.
d) retention.
e) competition for opportunities.
85. Refer to Case 4.2. As you review the comments and thoughts of these various managers, what
challenge to managing diversity seems to be expressed by all?
a) Valuing diversity
b) Individual vs. group fairness
c) Resistance to change
d) Segmented communication networks
e) Competition for opportunities
Case 4.3
Your retail company has 80% of its stores located in downtown metropolitan areas. Your biggest stores
are in communities where minorities represent 60% of your customers. Your middle-management
team has been changing over time so that 50% of your managers are women and about 30% are ethnic
minorities. A significant number of your hourly employees, about 35%, have served over 20 years
in their respective stores and many are over 40 years of age. Top management feels that African-Americans are underrepresented in the hourly workforce and in middle management. They want HR to
initiate an aggressive recruitment process to address the situation.
Hispanics are the biggest minority group, besides women, in your workforce. In a discussion about
where the company should target its diversity program, the CEO explains she wants to implement a
training program for managers to raise their sensitivity to minorities, especially Hispanics. She also notes
that there are no disabled persons in the workforce and very few Asian-Americans. Carlos, the VP of
facilities, notes that he has accommodated all the Asian-American employees he can in his MIS and
facility support services. He also argues that he only has about $10,000 in his budget for reorganizing
display space, etc., in the stores to accommodate disabled employees and that this amount probably
isn’t sufficient to adequately accommodate a disabled employee.

86. Refer to Case 4.3. Given the major problems African-Americans face in the work place, what
complementary program should HR initiate at the same time as their recruiting effort?
a) Diversity training
b) Senior mentoring
c) Flextime or job sharing
d) Interpersonal skills and management training
e) Education and technical education training
87. Refer to Case 4.3. Carlos’ comments about accommodating disabled employees:
a) show that he doesn't value diversity.
b) reveal the common misconception of accommodation costs.
c) show that he is inherently prejudiced against the disabled.	

IFSM300 conference 3

Question
	
Relying on your reading assignments in Baltzan, Chapter 4 and outside research, hold a discussion on the topic I have raised below. Respond to the discussion question below and provide at least two or three critical comments to the responses of your classmates in this conference.
To participate and contribute in this conference, CREATE a New Topic, modifying the subject line of your response to the name of your organization. Responses are expected to be at least 400 words in length; critical comments are expected to be at least 100 words in length.
Discussion Question
In the Digital Firm conference, you have identified an international or global business organization from the Fortune 100 list which utilized information systems to transform the business.
In this conference, address the ethical issues this firm needs to address as a result of the information systems currently in use.
	

bio145 lab 5

Question
	
1. a. What are the three classes of mollusks? (3
points)


 b. Explain the
shells of each of the three classes of mollusks. (3 points) 

 c. Name one
example of each of the three classes of mollusks. (3 points)

2. What is the largest class of mollusks? (1 point)

3. Name one cephalopod that still has a shell. (1 point)

4. Why is the name cephalopod appropriate for this class of
animals? (1 point)

5. a. What does it mean to exhibit bilateral symmetry? (1
point) 

 b. Which side of a
squid is the dorsal side? (1 point) 

 c. Which side of a
squid is the ventral side? (1 point)

6. a. How many tentacles are found on a squid? (1
point) 

 b. What is the
function of the tentacles? (1 point) 

 c. How many arms
are there on a squid? (1 point)
 

 d. What is the
function of the arms? (1 point) 

 e. How is the
arrangement of suckers on the tentacles different from the arrangement on the
arms? (1 point)

7. a. How does a squid maintain body stability? (1
point)


 b. How does a
squid propel itself through the water? (1 point)

8. How does a male squid transfer sperm from its body to
that of the female? (1 point)

9. a. How do squid bring oxygen into their bodies? (1
point)


 b. How do they get
rid of carbon dioxide? (1 point)

10. Identify the functions of the following structures: (10
points)



a. beak

b. eye

c. ganglia 

d. hearts

e. mantle

f. pen

g. radula

h. stomach

i. suckers

j. testes



11. What is the olfactory crest? (1 point)

12. What are two ways that squid can protect themselves from
predators? (2 points)

13. The pen is the vestigial internal shell of the squid.
What does the term vestigial mean? (1 point)

14. a. What is an advantage of having a shell? (1
point)


 b. What is an
advantage of not having a shell? (1 point)



--Answer below:

15. How many species of cephalopods are found in freshwater?
(1 point)

17. How many hearts does a squid have? (1 point)

19. What are chromatophores? (1 point)

20. a. Was the squid male or female? (1 point)


 b. What was the distinguishing characteristic?
(1 point)

	

CASE: 2-2 YSL MARKETING RESEARCH

Question
	YSL Marketing Research is a small firm located in Seattle, Washington. On behalf of its clients, the firm conducts focus group meetings, telephone and mail opinion surveys, and evaluations of marketing strategies. The firm has three partners and six nonpartner professionals. At the start of the year, the company estimated total professional compensation (for the three partners and six nonpartner professionals) to be $1,600,000.



To evaluate the profitability of its engagements, the firm traces actual professional compensation to each engagement along with so-called direct charges. Direct charges consist of travel costs and costs of conducting surveys (e.g., paper and postage). In addition, each engagement receives an allocation of overhead based on professional compensation charges. Overhead consists of all support costs including rent, utilities, and depreciation of office equipment. At the start of the year, these costs were estimated to be $496,000.



Recently, Connie Bachmann, a YSL partner, was asked to conduct a survey for Surenex, a new high-tech company. Connie is excited about this opportunity since she expects that this hot small company will, in three to five years, become a hot big company with premium billing opportunities. At this point, however, Connie wants to quote a low fee since Surenex has cash-flow problems and is clearly unwilling to pay YSL’s normal rates. On most jobs, YSL’s fee is 1.5 times professional compensation. In addition, the company is reimbursed for all out-of-pocket costs related to travel and paper and postage costs for surveys. YSL is in high demand, and if it undertakes the Surenex job, it will have to turn down another potential client.



Connie estimates that the Surenex engagement will require the following costs in addition to overhead support costs:



Connie Bachmann (partner), 40 hours at a salary averaging $120 per hour = $4,800.



Ambrose Bundy (professional staff), 100 hours at a salary of $40 per hour = $4,000.



Direct charges for actual travel, mailing, and postage = $3,000.



Total of above = $11,800.



Required



a. Calculate the expected full cost of the Surenex engagement, including an allocation of overhead. Round answer to nearest dollar and predetermined overhead rate to two decimal places.



b. What is the lowest amount that Connie can bill on this engagement without hurting company profit?



c. In deciding on a price for the engagement, what should Connie consider in addition to the amount calculated in (b)? (Jiambalvo 82-83)	

Armstrong_03_5Dec – 3rd

Question
	61.The legislation created to limit the number of commercials aired during children’s
programming is called the ________.
78 Copyright © 2009 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall
a. Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act
b. Child Protection Act
c. Commercial Product Act
d. Children’s Television Act
e. Consumer Product Safety Act
62.Business legislation has been created for three basic reasons: to protect companies
from each other, to protect consumers, and to ________.
a. protect the interests of society
b. regulate prices
c. increase world trade
d. regulate monopolies
e. promote social responsibility
;
63.The recent rash of business scandals and increased concerns about the environment
have created fresh interest in the issues of ________ and ________.
a. ethics; promotion responsibility
b. ethics; social responsibility
c. finances; employee discrimination
d. management ethics; insider trading
e. promotion; pricing
64. A company or association’s ________ is designed to help guide responses to complex
social responsibility issues.
a. code of ethics
b. cause-related marketing
c. discretion in enforcing regulations
d. privacy policy
e. core value system
65.The primary concern with the boom in e-commerce and Internet marketing is
________.
a. pornography
b. false advertising
c. privacy
d. ethics
e. theft
66. Cause-related marketing is ________.
a. a response to customer needs
b. a primary form of environmental awareness
c. a primary form of corporate giving
d. a response to corporate political problems
e. an attempt to influence customers’ core beliefs
67.A society’s basic values, perceptions, preferences, and behaviors are all part of its
________ environment.
a. social
b. cultural
Copyright © 2009 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall 79
Part 2: Understanding the Marketplace and Consumers
c. political
d. cultural-economic
e. natural
68.Marketers should understand that a society’s core beliefs and values have a high
degree of ________.
a. persistence
b. rigidity
c. similarity
d. ethnocentrism
e. conformity
69.A society’s ________ are expressed in how people view themselves, organizations,
society, nature, and the universe.
a. social codes
b. cultural values
c. demographics
d. public policies
e. economies
70.Watching the cultural trends of how people view others, observers have noted an
increased interest in ________.
a. socializing with co-workers
b. entertaining at home instead of going out
c. patriotism
d. do-it-yourself projects
e. adventurous experiences
71. Watching the cultural trends of how people view organizations, observers have noted
that today’s employees tend to be less loyal to and ________ of employers.
a. confident
b. respectful
c. ashamed
d. trustful
e. A and B
72.Since September 11, marketers have capitalized on the increased ________ of
Americans.
a. loyalty
b. patriotism
c. distrust
d. foreign intolerance
e. belligerence
73. Which of the following is a potential downside to using patriotic themes in marketing
programs?
a. Levels of patriotism fluctuate rapidly.
b. Patriotism has been on the decline in the past decade.
c. Such promotions can be viewed as attempts to gain from others’ triumph or
tragedy.
80 Copyright © 2009 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall
d. Americans are less confident in political organizations.
e. Few marketers currently use this technique.
Copyright © 2009 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall 81
Part 2: Understanding the Marketplace and Consumers
Some cultural forecasters have noted a renewed American interest in ________.
a. dominating and taming nature
b. the fine arts
c. work as a source of satisfaction and self-definition
d. spirituality
e. reforming society
74.Marketers can take a(n) ________ by taking aggressive action to affect the publics
and forces in their marketing environments.
a. environmental perspective
b. proactive stance
c. natural perspective
d. natural management perspective
e. relationship building perspective
True/False
75.Today’s marketers must successfully build relationships to connect effectively with
customers, others in the company, and external partners.
76.When the marketing manager Suzie Kwan discusses factors and forces outside
marketing that affect marketing management’s ability to build and maintain
successful relationships with target customers, she is talking about the external
marketing concept.
;
77.Marketers, more than any other group in the company, must be aware of the
microenvironment and macroenvironment, tracking trends and seeking opportunities.
78. The microenvironment consists of larger societal forces that affect a company, such
as demographic, economic, political, and cultural forces.
79.The macroenvironment consists of the factors close to the company that affect its
ability to service its customers, such as suppliers, customer markets, competitors, and
publics.
80.Trudie Jones works for a distribution channel firm that helps several electronics
companies find customers or make sales to them. Trudie works for a reseller.
81.Marketing research firms, advertising agencies, media firms, and marketing
consulting firms are all referred to as marketing services agencies.
82. Today’s marketers recognize the importance of working with their intermediaries as
channels through which they sell their products rather than as full-fledged partners.
83. As an employee of Bonkers Enterprises, Brianna Jones markets wild and crazy games
for teens to play at parties. Brianna’s customer market is a business market.
84. No single competitive marketing strategy is best for all companies.
85.Consumer organizations such as environmental and minority groups that may
question a company’s marketing decisions are referred to as local publics.
82 Copyright © 2009 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall
86.The demographic environment is of major interest to marketers because it involves
people, and people make up markets.
87.The single most important demographic trend in the United States that marketers
should understand is the changing family structure.
88. As baby boomers reach their peak earning and spending years, they become markets
for high-ticket items.
89. Once thought of as slackers, Gen Xers are now displacing the lifestyles, culture, and
materialistic values of the baby boomers.
90.Millennials comprise the most commercially influential demographic group in
American history.	

Ac 504 unit 6 assignment

Question
	
Unit
6: Globalization and the Development of Common Standards for Accounting and
Ethics
Assignment:
Final Research Paper


In
recent years, there has been an effort to develop a common set of accounting
standards for nations and firms doing business around the world. For the final
project, you are to discuss how the effort for a global set of accounting
standards has increased the motivation or need to establish a global set of
ethical standards. Include in your discussion the history of the 1) U.S.
(AICPA) and 2) international ethical standards (IFAC). How are the U.S. and the
international community developing a common set of ethical standards? What are
some of the challenges faced by the two governing bodies?

The
paper is to be 8–10 pages (of content) long and prepared in accordance with APA
guidelines. There should also be a 1–2 paragraph abstract and a bibliography
showing a significant variety of current, relevant sources that are used and
cited in the paper. The paper is to be submitted via the course Dropbox by Day
7 of Unit 6.



	

CHAP_01_5DEC – 3rd

Question
	61. (p. 22) Senior executives responsible for the overall management and effectiveness of the
organization are called:
A. Low-level managers
B. Middle managers
C. Strategic managers
D. Tactical managers
E. None of the above
62. (p. 22) The three levels of managers within large organizations are:
A. International, Regional and Local
B. Marketing, Management and Accounting
C. Technical, Functional and Departmental
D. Upper Level, Top Management and Functional
E. Top-Level, Middle-Level and Frontline
Chapter 01 - Managing
63. (p. 22) Top-level managers focus on:
A. Long-term survival of an organization
B. Translating goals and objectives into specific activities
C. Managing frontline managers
D. Supervising non management employees
E. All of the above
 
64. (p. 22) ________________ managers are typically concerned with the interaction between
the organization and its external environment.
A. Regional
B. Top-level
C. Middle-level
D. Frontline
E. Functional
Chapter 01 - Managing
65. (p. 22) CEO, President, COO and Vice President are all titles typical of which level of
management?
A. Strategic
B. Tactical
C. Operational
D. Functional
E. Regional
66. (p. 23) Which type of manager has responsibility for translating the general goals and plans
developed for an organization into more specific activities?
A. Operational Managers
B. Functional Managers
C. Activities Managers
D. Strategic Managers
E. Tactical Managers
67. (p. 23) Lower level managers who supervise the operational activities of the organization are
called:
A. Frontline managers
B. Middle managers
C. Top-level managers
D. Tactical managers
E. None of the above
68. (p. 23) Tactical managers are often referred to as:
A. Center management
B. Middle management
C. Lower management
D. Disposable management
E. Upper-middle management
Chapter 01 - Managing
69. (p. 23) Managers responsible for supervising the operations of an organization are referred to
as:
A. Strategic managers
B. Functional managers
C. Supervisory managers
D. Operational managers
E. Tactical managers
70. (p. 23) Operational managers play a crucial role in an organization because they provide:
A. The link between managerial and non-managerial personnel
B. Discipline for problem managers
C. The key plans for an organization's success
D. Feedback on top management performance
E. Operational managers do all of the above
Chapter 01 - Managing
71. (p. 23-24, Table 1.2) One of Karl Crowe's primary activities in his career as a supervisor at a
leading company is creating opportunities for new growth in the business and developing non-management employees. Kari is most likely a(n):
A. Frontline manager
B. Tactical manager
C. Middle-level manager
D. Top-level manager
E. Administrative controller
72. (p. 23-24) Titles such as Foreman, Lead Bartender or Supervisor typically belong to managers
at what level?
A. Strategic
B. Middle
C. Top
D. Operational
E. Tactical
4
73. (p. 23-24, Table 1.2) As a manager at Getaway Travel, Catherine Davis spends much of her time
coaching young managers and making sure that information reaches the units that need it to
be successful. Catherine would best be described as a (an):
A. Frontline manager
B. Tactical manager
C. Operational manager
D. Top-level manager
E. Institutional controller
Chapter 01 - Managing
74. (p. 24) Which of the following represents today's organizational trend?
A. More teamwork
B. Enhanced hierarchy
C. Individual effort and rewards
D. Specialized responsibility
E. All of the above
75. (p. 24) In smaller entrepreneurial firms and even in more adaptive larger firms, managers
A. Are no longer utilized
B. Rely more heavily on technical skills
C. Serve as "experts" on whom the firm depends
D. Have strategic, tactical and operational responsibilities
E. Focus on internal operations only
that result from knowledge, information, practice and aptitude are referred to as:
A. Leadership
B. Qualifications
C. Skills
D. Talents
E. Functions
Chapter 01 - Managing
77. (p. 25) Which of these represent skills that managers need?
A. Interpersonal & communication, conceptual & decision making and professional
B. Technical, interpersonal & communication and conceptual & decision making
C. Professional, technical and interpersonal & communication
D. Conceptual & decision making, professional and technical
E. None of the above
78. (p. 25) The ability to perform a specialized task is referred to as a
A. Conceptual skill
B. Quantitative skill
C. Professional skill
D. Technical skill
E. Decisional skill
79. (p. 25) Utilization of computers, compilation of an accounting statement and writing an
advertising copy are all examples of which type of skill?
A. Technical
B. Professional
C. Conceptual
D. Interpersonal
E. Quantitative
Chapter 01 - Managing
80. (p. 25) Technical skills are important for
A. Completing strategic planning activities within an organization
B. Strategic planning within the external environment
C. Getting a good start early in your career
D. Getting promoted from middle to senior management
E. None of the above
81. (p. 25) Which of Mintzberg's roles involves searching for new business opportunities and
initiating new projects to create change?
A. Leader
B. Figurehead
C. Entrepreneur
D. Resource allocator
E. Frontline manager

82. (p. 25, Table 1.3) Which of Mintzberg's roles involves speaking on behalf of the organization?
A. Disseminator
B. Spokesperson
C. Liaison
D. Figurehead
E. Disturbance handler
83. (p. 25, Table 1.3) Which of the following roles, as defined by Mintzberg is NOT a decisional
role?
A. Resource allocator
B. Disturbance handler
C. Leader
D. Negotiator
E. Entrepreneur
Chapter 01 - Managing
84. (p. 25, Table 1.3) When the President of a company attends the Opening Ceremony for a
supplier's new office complex, this is an example of which of Mintzberg's roles?
A. Leader
B. Liaison
C. Figurehead
D. Spokesperson
E. Resource allocator
85. (p. 25, Table 1.3) When a Customer Service Manger works to diffuse a situation with an irate
customer, which of Mintzberg's roles is he/she taking on?
A. Liaison
B. Disturbance handler
C. Negotiator
D. Resource allocator
E. Leader
Chapter 01 - Managing
86. (p. 26) ______________ skills influence a manager's ability to work well with people.
A. Decisional
B. Technical
C. Interpersonal
D. Professional
E. Conceptual
: 5
87. (p. 26) Listening to employee suggestions, gaining support for organizational objectives and
fostering an atmosphere of teamwork are all considered:
A. Technical skills
B. Interpersonal/communication skills
C. Diagnostic skills
D. Professional skills
E. All of the above
88. (p. 26) Managers will utilize _____________ skills with increasing frequency as they rise
within an organization.
A. Conceptual and decision
B. Interpersonal and communication
C. Technical
D. Professional
E. All of the above
Chapter 01 - Managing
89. (p. 26) Top management at Media Blitz, Inc. recognized a lack of employee interaction and
consequently developed methods to tap into employee ideas. The overall process of how the
agency operated was altered by incorporating employee input. The ability to identify this
problem and resolve it is an effective use of
A. Adapter skills
B. Technical skills
C. Tactical skills
D. Conceptual and decision skills
E. Professional skills

90. (p. 26) The importance of managerial skills is exemplified by which of the following
statements?
A. Many high-potential managers have had their careers "derailed" by poor interpersonal
skills
B. Upper- level managers need technical
 skills to manage supervisory personnel
C. Supervisory level managers have the most contact with the top-level managers
D. Managers at low levels of management need interpersonal skills in order to effectively
communicate with their subordinates
E. All of the above	

general business data bank

Question
	
41. What
is one important conclusion drawn from research comparing the attachments of
Israeli children to mother, father, and special caregiver (metapelet)? 

a. Babies can only form one true
attachment.

b. The attachment to one’s mother is
more important than the other attachments.

c. Infants can have a variety of
attachment relationships that all contribute to social development differently.

d. All attachment relationships are
the same.



42. Under
which conditions would you expect a 9 month-old baby to make the strongest
protest over separation? 

a. The mother leaves the baby in a
laboratory room and closes the door behind her.

b. The mother leaves the baby’s sight
but calls out to the baby from another room.

c. The mother leaves the living room
and walks into the kitchen while the baby stays in the living room.

d. The mother walks from one
laboratory room to an adjoining room while the baby watches.



43. What is the purpose of the Strange
Situation as an experimental procedure? 

a. to stimulate the attachment system
and observe it under controlled conditions

b. to stimulate alternative approaches
to emotional regulation and control

c. to help babies reduce their fear of
separation

d. to help parents learn to handle
separation from their infants



44. In the Strange Situation, which of the
following behaviors are generally NOT subjected to systematic observations? 

a. interactions
between the baby and the stranger

b. interactions
between the baby and the mother

c. interactions
between the baby and the observer

d. the
baby’s behavior



45. Which
of the following is a characteristic of babies who do NOT have a secure
attachment?

a. At
home, they cry less than other babies.

b. They
actively explore the environment when their mothers are present.

c. They
avoid contact with their mothers after brief separation.

d. They
interact with strangers while mothers are present.



46. Babies who avoid contact with their
mothers after separation or who ignore her efforts to interact have a(n)
_____________ attachment. 

a. secure

b. insecure

c. anxious-resistant

d. anxious-avoidant



47. Which
attachment pattern is linked with the most serious mental health problems in
later childhood? 

a. anxious-avoidant

b. anxious-resistant

c. secure

d. disorganized







48. Babies who show a(n) ________ attachment
appear to cry the most in the home situation. 

a. anxious-avoidant

b. anxious-resistant

c. secure

d. undeveloped



49. Infants who show an anxious-resistant
attachment appear to have an internal, mental representation of the mother as
_______________.

a. skewed
and simplistic

b. rejecting

c. accessible
and responsive

 unpredictable





50. When
mothers are inconsistent in responsiveness to their babies, the babies are
characterized as______.

a. anxious-avoidant

b. anxious-resistant

c. secure

d. disorganized



51. A mother who can accurately interpret
her baby’s signals and respond appropriately is said to demonstrate
__________________.

a. sensitivity

b. good
temperament

c. inhibited
attachment

d. organized
security



52. What experiences from the past are most
likely to interfere with an adult’s ability to form a secure attachment with an
infant? 

a. having a mother who responds
promptly to signs of distress

b. being an only child

c. disruption of early attachment
relationship

d. lack of a high school diploma



53. In considering the role of culture in
attachment formation, cultural beliefs about infants might be evident in which
of the following? 

a. the caregiver’s interpretation of
the urgency of a baby’s cry

b. the caregiver’s age at birth of
first child

c. the caregiver’s marital status

d. the caregiver’s participation in a
traditional marriage ceremony



54. Which statement best reflects the
apparent connection between infant temperament and attachment? 

a. The infant’s temperament influences
the kinds of parental responses needed to help the infant form a secure
attachment.

b. An infant’s temperament is a strong
predictor of the type of attachment that will be formed.

c. The infant’s temperament influences
the caregiver’s self-esteem.

d. Only sociable babies form secure
attachments.





55. A model of factors affecting a
caregiver’s sensitivity to an infant’s needs includes 4 factors. Which of the
following is NOT included in this model?


a. a caregiver’s own personal life
story

b. characteristics of the infant

c. urban, rural, or suburban community
context

d. culture



56. Which of the following statements best
describes the role of early attachments for later behavior? 

a. Attachments formed in infancy are
not relevant for understanding relationships in childhood or adolescence.

b. The attachment formed at 12 months
may change dramatically by age 2.

c. A secure attachment can become
insecure but an insecure attachment cannot become secure.

d. Secure attachments are associated
with positive adaptive capacities at 3 to 5 years.



57. Which
of the following has been consistently observed to be a consequence of secure
attachments formed in infancy? 

a. success
in job placement after college

b. positive,
close peer relationships in childhood and adolescence

c. meaningful
relationships with one’s grandchildren in later adulthood

d. an
ability to face one’s death without great fear



58. Two
expressions of reactive attachment disorder are ________________.

a. inhibited
and uninhibited type

b. expressive
and unexpressive type

c. inhibited
and expressive type

d. none
of these



59. A
person that is very withdrawn, hypervigilant in social contacts, and resistant
to comfort are considered ____.

a. nonsociable
type

b. unexpressive
type

c. inhibited
type

d. slow-to-warm-up
type





60. Childhood
attachment has been found to be associated with _______.

a. self-esteem

b. peer
relationships

c. romantic
relationships

d. all
of the these