Case Study 4 and Exercise 1 Case Study 4 and Exercise 1 Question Case Study, Stage 4: Executive Briefing on ImplementationBefore you begin this assignment, be sure you have read the Case Study and the Case Study Projects 1-3.Executive Briefing on ImplementationFor your Stage 1 Project, you proposed a technology solution to improve a strategic business area for the Case Study. In Stage 2 you evaluated the IT architectural considerations. In Stage 3 you developed a business case justification for the proposed solution. In Exercise 1 you conducted a risk analysis. In this Stage 4 Project you are to prepare an Executive Briefing using Microsoft PowerPoint addressing how the solution you proposed in Stage 1 could be implemented. You will describe the hardware, software and telecommunications components of the solution and how IT best practices and enterprise methodologies should be used to implement the recommended technology solution. Your objective is to provide a convincing implementation strategy that shows you know what the implementation entails and that the solution can be successfully implemented.Purpose of this AssignmentThis assignment gives you the opportunity to demonstrate your ability to plan a technology solution, to identify the IT best practices that should be used to implement it, and to communicate effectively with an important group of stakeholders. This assignment specifically addresses the following course outcomes to enable you to:evaluate information systems and enterprise solutions to determine the best fit to enable the organization's strategic outcomesapply information technology best practices and methodologies to create information technology solutionsapply fundamental information technology architecture concepts for information technology solution buildingAssignmentUsing the technology solution you proposed in Stage 1 and the technical details you included in Stage 2, you should prepare an Executive Briefing that:Briefly describes the proposed solutionIdentifies the hardware, software and telecommunications components of the solutionExplains how the solution will be implementedIncorporates IT best practices and methodologies, explaining how they will be used for the implementationNOTE: Be sure to incorporate any feedback you have received on earlier assignments in this class to improve your final presentation that summarizes your proposed solution.Each slide should have a title and a limited number of bullet points. The presentation should capture key bullet points and not include complete paragraphs and detailed text.The bullet points in your presentation will be supported by relevant details in the “Notes” section of the slides. Use the “Notes” area to write what you would say if you were giving this as a presentation. Do not just repeat the bullet points from the slides. Presentations with limited or no “Notes” will receive much lower grades.The use of at least two external resources is required. Remember to correctly cite and reference all sources. Any direct quotes should be indicated within the slide text with appropriate quotation marks and an in-text citation (however direct quotes should be short and used sparingly, if at all). Complete references for sources should be included in the corresponding Notes section. Paraphrased material can just be referenced within the Notes section of the slides without an in-text citation on the slide. This deviates from APA style but keeps the slides more readable.Your presentation format should be professional and use frames, color and/or style to make it interesting in appearance to keep your audience’s attention. At least one graphic or diagram of your technology solution must be included. Use the Grading Rubric to be sure you have covered everything. Submit your presentation via your Assignment Folder as a Microsoft PowerPoint (2003, 2007 or 2010) document with your last name included in the filename. Also, place a copy of your presentation in the Week 8 Conference.In addition to the cover slide, your presentation should be 9-12 slides, to include:A cover slide with a title, your name and date as a minimum (not included in minimum/maximum number of 9-12 slides)1-2 slides that summarize the proposed solution (hardware, software, telecommunications)2-3 slides that explain the proposed solution components, including a diagram or illustration of the solution1-2 slides that explain the steps required to implement the solution4-6 slides on how IT best practices and enterprise methodologies will be used for the implementationSummary/conclusion slide-------------------------------------Exercise 1: Risk Analysis - See Attached document for Risk MatriX-------------------------------------------- , Attachments (61.5 KB)
CP9 Pinkerton Corporation’s trial balance at December 31, 2010, is presented below. CP9 Pinkerton Corporation’s trial balance at December 31, 2010, is presented below. Question CP9 Pinkerton Corporation's trial balance at December 31, 2010, is presented below.CP9 Pinkerton Corporation's trial balance at December 31, 2010, is presented below. All 2010 transactions have been recorded except for the items described after the trial balance.Debit CreditCash $ 28,000Accounts Receivable 36,800Notes Receivable 10,000Interest Receivable –0–Merchandise Inventory 36,200Prepaid Insurance 3,600Land 20,000Building 150,000Equipment 60,000Patent 9,000Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $ 500Accumulated Depreciation—Building 50,000Accumulated Depreciation—Equipment 24,000Accounts Payable 27,300Salaries Payable –0–Unearned Rent 6,000Notes Payable (short-term) 11,000Interest Payable –0–Notes Payable (long-term) 35,000Common Stock 50,000Retained Earnings 63,600Dividends 12,000Sales 900,000Interest Revenue –0–Rent Revenue –0–Gain on Disposal –0–Bad Debts Expense –0–Cost of Goods Sold 630,000Depreciation Expense—Buildings –0–Depreciation Expense—Equipment –0–Insurance Expense –0–Interest Expense –0–Other Operating Expenses 61,800Amortization Expense—Patents –0–Salaries Expense 110,000Total $1,167,400 $1,167,400Unrecorded transactions1. On May 1, 2010, Pinkerton purchased equipment for $16,000 plus sales taxes of $800 (all paid in cash).2. On July 1, 2010, Pinkerton sold for $3,500 equipment which originally cost $5,000. Accumulated depreciation on this equipment at January 1, 2010, was $1,800; 2010 depreciation prior to the sale of equipment was $450.3. On December 31, 2010, Pinkerton sold for $5,000 on account inventory that cost $3,500.4. Pinkerton estimates that uncollectible accounts receivable at year-end are $4,000.5. The note receivable is a one-year, 8% note dated April 1, 2010. No interest has been recorded.6. The balance in prepaid insurance represents payment of a $3,600, 6-month premium on September 1, 2010.7. The building is being depreciated using the straight-line method over 30 years. The salvage value is $30,000.8. The equipment owned prior to this year is being depreciated using the straight-line method over 5 years. The salvage value is 10% of cost.9. The equipment purchased on May 1, 2010, is being depreciated using the straight-line method over 5 years, with a salvage value of $1,800.10. The patent was acquired on January 1, 2010, and has a useful life of 9 years from that date.11. Unpaid salaries at December 31, 2010, total $2,200.12. The unearned rent of $6,000 was received on December 1, 2010, for 3 months rent.13. Both the short-term and long-term notes payable are dated January 1, 2010, and carry a 10% interest rate. All interest is payable in the next 12 months.14. Income tax expense was $15,000. It was unpaid at December 31.Instructions(a) Prepare journal entries for the transactions listed above.(b) Prepare an updated December 31, 2010, trial balance.Totals $1,213,150(c) Prepare a 2010 income statement and a 2010 retained earnings statement.Net income $58,000(d) Prepare a December 31, 2010, balance sheet.Total assets $258,700
accounts data bank accounts data bank Question 6. William Corporation, which has a fiscal year ending January 31, had the following pretax accounting income and estimated effective annual income tax rates for the first three quarters of the year ended January 31, 2008: William's income tax expenses in its interim income statement for the third quarter are: A. $36,000. B. $73,500. C. $46,500. D. $120,000. 7. On June 30, 2008, String Corporation incurred a $220,000 net loss from disposal of a business component. Also, on June 30, 2008, String paid $60,000 for property taxes assessed for the calendar year 2008. What amount of the preceding items should be included in the determination of String's net income or loss for the six-month interim period ended June 30, 2008? A. $250,000 B. $220,000 C. $140,000 D. $280,000 8. Trevor Company discloses supplementary operating segment information for its three reportable segments. Data for 2008 are available as follows: Additional 2008 expenses include indirect operating expenses of $200,000. Appropriately selected common indirect operating expenses are allocated to segments based on the ratio of each segment's sales to total sales. The 2008 operating profit for Segment B was: A. $180,000 B. $120,000 C. $150,000 D. $250,000 9. Trevor Company discloses supplementary operating segment information for its three reportable segments. Data for 2008 are available as follows: Allocable costs for the year was $180,000. Allocable costs are assigned based on the ratio of a segment's income before allocable costs to total income before allocable costs. The 2008 operating profit for Segment B was: A. $110,000 B. $180,000 C. $126,000 D. $120,000 10. Trimester Corporation's revenue for the year ended December 31, 2008, was as follows: Trimester has a reportable operating segment if that segment's revenue exceeds: A. $65,500 B. $60,000 C. $64,500 D. $61,000 , Attachments (18.95 KB)
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. PVIF(10%, 1)? a. 0.909 b. 1 c. 1.1 d. 1.21 e. 1.331 2. What is the relationship between FVIF(r%, N) and PVIF(r%, N)? a. PVIF is greater than FVIF b. FVIF is a sum of PVIF from n=1 to n=N c. PVIF is an inverse of FVIF d. PVIF is used for an annuity e. FVIF*PVIF=2.0 3. You want to buy a $15,000 car. If you borrow money from the dealer, they are willing to give you a 1 year loan and you need to make a single payment one year from today at zero interest. If you borrow money from a bank for the same one year period and make a cash payment to the dealer right now (using the money you borrow from the bank), you can enjoy a $1,000 discount from a dealer. The bank interest rate is 12% and you need to make a single payment one year from today to pay off the debt. Which alternative do you like better. Basically, you need to borrow money, either from the dealer or from the bank. What is the difference between the future payments of these two choices? a. Loan from the dealer, more than $2,000 b. Bank, more than $2,000 c. Loan from the dealer, less than $2,000 d. Bank, less than $2,000 e. Equivalent 4. Susie Orman argues that you can have more money by saving $100 each month (starting at the end of this month for 12 deposits) instead of saving $1,200 at the end of each year. To check whether that is true, you are going to compare saving $600 every six months for a year (starting from 6 months from today for 2 deposits) vis-à-vis $1,200 at the end of the year. What is the future value of $600 saved every six months for a year at the end of the first year at 10% APR? a. $1,100 b. $1,135 c. $1,230 d. $1,740 e. $1,200 5. How long does it take to triple your investment at 6% per year? a. 7.2 years b. 10.2 years c. 12.9 years d. 14.6 years e. 18.9 years 6. Which of followings is NOT the characteristics of a perpetuity? a. A perpetuity continues for a fixed time period. b. Value of a perpetuity can be calculated as “PMT/i” c. In a perpetuity, returns are earned in the form of a series of cash flows. d. A perpetuity is a constant infinite stream of identical cash flows. e. Real estate and preferred stock are effectively perpetuities. 7. If an investment of $87,250 is earning 5% interest rate compounded annually, how long will it take for this investment to reach a value of $99,750 if no additional withdrawals or no deposits are being made during the period? a. 2.47 years b. 2.52 years c. 2.74 years d. 2.61 years e. 2.83 years 8. If a security of $17,200 is worth $20,390 three years in the future and assuming that no withdrawals or deposits are made, what is the implied interest rate that the investor expects to earn on the security? a. 4.19% b. 5.84% c. 6.78% d. 7.82% e. 8.24% 9. Keanu’s financial planner suggested once he crosses a threshold of $4,991,331 in savings, he will have enough money for retirement. Keanu has nothing saved for his retirement yet, so he has to start depositing $85,000 in retirement fund at a fixed rate of 12.00% at the end of each year. How long will it take for Keanu to retire? a. 15.64 years b. 18.40 years c. 23.00 years d. 24.84 years e. Keanu will not be able to retire 10. You’ve decided to buy a house that is valued at $1 million. You have $500,000 as a down payment on the house and you take out a mortgage for the rest. Your bank is offering you a 30-year standard mortgage at a fixed nominal rate of 9% or a 15-year mortgage at a fixed nominal rate of 9%. How much larger must your monthly payment would be? a. $1,048.22 b. $1,205.45 c. $1,519.92 d. $1,729.56 e. $1,836.69
marketing quiz test bank marketing quiz test bank Question 91. General summaries of overall marketing cost data ? may hide problems rather than highlighting them. are usually the key to identifying how to improve the marketing plan. should not be too detailed--since detailed analysis requires allocating costs that are actually fixed. are usually enough to reveal areas where changes are needed. All of the above are true. 92. Marketing cost analysis shows that one of Buildco, Inc.'s customers is unprofitable, so Buildco should: refuse to sell to that customer. ? try to determine why this customer is unprofitable. drop the customer and shift all fixed costs to the other customers. assign a new salesperson to that account. immediately develop a plan to sell more to that customer. 93. Using cost analysis to analyze the money being spent by a firm is analogous to using ____________ to analyze the money coming into the firm. ? sales analysis traditional accounting reports performance analysis the iceberg principle TQM methods 94. The text's "full-cost approach" to marketing cost analysis: looks only at each customer or product's "contribution margin." ? allocates all costs to products, customers, or other categories. looks only at those costs which are directly related to particular alternatives. is misleading and should be avoided. All of the above. 95. The "contribution-margin approach" to marketing cost analysis: ? considers only those costs which are directly related to particular alternatives. is especially useful for estimating the long-run profit of a proposed strategy. allocates variable costs which are hard to measure to overhead. is especially useful for determining if there should be more controls on fixed costs. All of the above. 96. The "contribution margin approach" to marketing cost analysis: allocates all costs to products or customers. should always be used instead of the full-cost approach--so that fixed costs are fully considered. ? focuses management's attention on variable costs rather than total costs. assumes that all costs must be allocated. None of the above. 97. Regarding marketing cost analysis, the full-cost approach usually should be used as there are almost always some fixed costs to be allocated. ? the contribution-margin approach focuses attention on variable costs. fixed costs should be allocated according to the contribution-margin approach. the action implications will be the same whether the full-cost or contribution-margin approach is used. the contribution-margin approach provides the most complete allocation of total expenses. 98. The main difference between the full-cost approach and the contribution-margin approach to marketing cost analysis is: The contribution-margin approach uses both mechanical and logical reasoning to allocate marketing costs. ? The full-cost approach allocates all costs--even fixed costs--to products, customers, or other categories. The contribution-margin approach allocates all costs to show how profitable various customers are. The full-cost approach focuses on variable costs rather than total costs. 99. With the "contribution-margin approach" to marketing cost analysis, all costs are allocated to products, customers, or other categories. fixed costs are allocated based on the profit contribution to the firm. variable costs are treated as common costs. ? common costs which are hard to allocate are ignored. None of the above is true. 100. Lori Winters, a regional sales manager, is interested in the profitability of the different sales reps in her region. She has used a variety of different approaches for allocating fixed sales expenses to the different sales reps, but she reaches very different conclusions depending on which allocation approach is used. In this case, it would be wise for Ms. Winters to supplement her other analyses with an analysis based on ? the contribution-margin approach. the full-cost approach. the marketing audit approach. none of the above. all of the above. 101. Regarding the "contribution-margin approach" to marketing cost analysis, which of the following statements is TRUE? The total net profit obtained with this approach is different from that obtained using the "full-cost approach." It is concerned with the amount contributed by a product or customer toward covering variable costs--after fixed costs have been covered. This approach stresses the need for evaluating fixed costs. ? This approach may suggest a different action than the "full-cost approach." All of the above are true. 102. When the "full-cost approach" to marketing cost analysis is used, allocating fixed costs on the basis of sales: ? may make low-volume customers appear more profitable than they are. increases each customer's contribution margin. decreases the profitability of the whole business. makes large-volume customers appear more profitable that they are. increases the profitability of the whole business. 103. If one were using the "full-cost" approach to marketing cost analysis, then allocating fixed costs on the basis of sales volume would: make some customers appear more profitable than they actually are. not be done--because only variable costs would be analyzed. make some products appear less profitable than they actually are. decrease the profitability of the whole business. ? Both A and C are true statements. 104. Which of the following would be the BEST reason to use the "full-cost approach" when comparing the performance of several product managers? Unlike the "contribution-margin approach," it charges managers only for the expenses which are directly related to their operations. This approach is required by Federal tax laws. It charges each product manager only for those expenses which he controls. It allows management to consider only the variable costs related to different products. ? It makes each manager bear a share of the overhead expenses which were made for everyone's benefit. 105. A company produces three product lines and a different marketing manager is responsible for each line. Most marketing expenses are specific to each line, but a common sales force sells all three lines. Sales reps are paid by commission, with a different commission for each product line. In this case, in a marketing cost analysis, ? the contribution-margin approach would probably divide personal selling expense based on commission expense for each product line. a full-cost approach would ignore commission expense since it is not a fixed cost. sales commissions are a variable expense and would not be considered in the contribution-margin approach. the full-cost approach would be easier to do if all sales reps were paid a straight salary. None of the above is true. 106. When deciding how to evaluate costs, a marketing manager should realize that ? the best method for dealing with fixed costs depends on the objectives of the analysis. according to the iceberg principle too much detail in cost analysis obscures the big problems by calling attention to the superficial problems. the full cost approach is misleading and should not be used. the contribution-margin approach ignores necessary fixed costs and should not be used. None of the above. 107. Which of the following statements about the contribution-margin approach is FALSE? It is concerned with the amount contributed by an item or group of items toward covering fixed costs. This approach suggests that it is not necessary to consider all costs in all situations. ? Top management almost always finds this approach more useful than full-cost analysis. This approach frequently leads to data which suggest a different decision than might be indicated by the full-cost approach. It focuses on controllable costs--rather than on total costs. 108. A systematic, critical, and unbiased review and appraisal of the basic objectives and policies of the marketing function--and of the organization, methods, procedures, and people employed to implement the policies--is called a: MIS report. ? marketing audit. management review. marketing information system. marketing analysis survey. 109. A marketing audit should help determine if: current marketing strategies are good ones. the company's marketing objectives are reasonable. implementation of a marketing program was effective. ? All of the above. None of the above. 110. A marketing audit is: an evaluation of day-to-day marketing operations. an analysis of the profitability of all profit centers. a review of a marketing program during a crisis. a detailed look by a CPA at how the company's marketing costs are allocated. ? a systematic, critical, and unbiased review and appraisal of the objectives and policies of the marketing function.111. A "marketing audit" should: be done by someone inside the finance department. be conducted whenever a crisis arises. be conducted by the person most familiar with each of the firm's marketing plans.? evaluate a company's whole marketing program on a regular basis. All of the above. 112. Which of the following statements about a "marketing audit" is true? A marketing audit should be conducted only when some crisis arises. It probably should be conducted by someone inside the marketing department who is familiar with the whole program.? A marketing audit should evaluate the company's whole marketing program--not just some parts of it. A marketing audit should be handled by the specialist most familiar with each of the marketing plans in the program. All of the above are true statements.
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. Another term for high customer ________ is customer churn. a. retention b. defection c. value d. perception e. belief 2. People with the motivation, ability, and opportunity to make a purchase are known as ________. a. potentials b. advocates c. members d. prospects e. partners 3. Customers who enthusiastically recommend the company and its products and services to others are known as ________. a. potentials b. advocates c. members d. prospects e. partners 4. Satisfied customers constitute the company’s ________. a. customer relationship capital b. customer churn c. prospects d. high-value customers e. customer touch points 5. Acquiring new customers can cost ________ times more than satisfying and retaining current customers. a. two b. three c. five d. seven e. 10 6. All of the following are methods to form strong customer bonds EXCEPT ________. a. creating superior products, services, and experiences for the target market b. making it easy for customers to reach the appropriate company personnel and express their needs, perceptions, and complaints c. organizing and making accessible a database of information on individual customer needs, preferences, contacts, purchase frequency, and satisfaction d. running award programs recognizing outstanding employees e. concentrating the planning and management of the customer satisfaction and retention process within the marketing department 7. When companies provide rewards to customers who buy frequently and in substantial amounts, this is referred to as ________. a. benefit programs b. frequency programs c. satisfaction programs d. loyalty programs e. quality programs Typically, ________ gains the most benefit from introducing a frequency program. f. the first company to introduce a frequency program in an industry g. the fast follower, who is second to introduce a frequency program in an industry, h. the industry sales leader i. the niche player in the industry j. the low-cost leader in the industry 8. All of the following are CRM imperatives EXCEPT ________. a. acquiring the right customer b. crafting the right value proposition c. instituting the best processes d. motivating employees e. learning to make profits through marginal customers 9. CRM technology can help motivate employees by ________. a. analyzing customer revenue and cost data to identify current and future high-value customers b. better targeting the company’s direct marketing efforts c. tracking customer-service satisfaction levels d. aligning employee incentives and metrics e. developing new pricing models 10. According to Stanford’s business guru Jeffery Pfeffer, “the best companies build cultures in which frontline people ________.” a. can refer serious problems to senior management b. have strictly limited freedom to deviate from standard operating procedures c. are also consumers of the company’s products d. are empowered to do what’s needed to take care of the customer e. live in the communities they serve 11. An organized collection of comprehensive information about individual customers or prospects that is current, accessible, and actionable for such marketing purposes as lead generation, lead qualification, sale of a product or service, or maintenance of customer relationships is called ________. a. a customer database b. a customer mail list c. target market segments d. customer segments e. relationship marketsa 12. The process of building, maintaining, and using customer databases and other databases for the purpose of contacting, transacting, and building customer relationships is called ________. a. data warehousing b. datamining c. database marketing d. custom marketing e. electronic marketing 13. A _____________ is simply a set of names, addresses, and telephone numbers. a. customer database b. customer mailing list c. call-waiting list d. psychographic list e. demographic list 14. A customer database should contain all of the following EXCEPT ________. a. a customer’s past purchases b. demographics c. psychographics d. mediagraphics e. an assessment of competitive strengths and weaknesses 15. A ________ would contain such items as past volumes, prices, profits, buyer, status of current contacts, and an assessment of competitive strengths and weaknesses. a. customer mailing list b. contact list c. customer database d. business database e. general corporate database 16. Savvy companies are capturing information every time a customer comes into contact with any of its departments. As a marketing manager all of the following would be available customer touch points for your consideration EXCEPT ________. a. a customer purchase b. an online query c. a mail-in rebate card d. an ad run on a national television network e. a customer-requested service call 17. Using his company’s ________ lets a telemarketer respond to customer inquiries more effectively because he or she can see a total picture of the customer relationship. a. data warehouse b. call back list c. call rejection list d. corporate database e. Better Business Bureau contacts 18. Through ________, marketing statisticians can extract useful information about individuals, trends, and segments from the mass of data. a. data accumulation b. target market information supplied by the government c. datamining d. data management e. data marketing 19. ________ involves the use of sophisticated statistical and mathematical techniques such as cluster analysis, automatic interaction detection, predictive modeling, and neural networking. a. Data management b. Data marketing c. Target market analysis d. Data accumulation e. Datamining 20. In general, companies can use their databases in all of the following ways EXCEPT ________. a. to predict competitive strategies and plans b. to identify prospects c. to decide which customers should receive a particular offer d. to deepen customer loyalty e. to avoid serious customer mistakes 21. Susan Lefferts’ company advertises widely. Ms. Lefferts uses business reply cards attached to her company’s magazine ads to build her company’s database. In which of the following ways would Ms. Lefferts most likely use the database? a. To deepen customer loyalty b. To reactivate customer purchases c. To avoid serious customer mistakes d. To determine if up-selling is appropriate e. To identify prospects Phil Langston has just ordered a number of expensive executive gifts that he will be sending as an appreciation token to a select few customers from his client database. In which of the following ways is Mr. Langston most likely using his database? f. To identify prospects g. To decide which customers should receive a new sales offer h. To deepen customer loyalty i. To avoid serious customer mistakes j. To beat the competition to a sale 22. Royal Caribbean uses its ________ to offer spur-of-the-moment cruise packages to fill all the berths on its ships. It focuses on retired people and single people because they are more able to make quick commitments. a. advertising b. database c. mail catalogs d. public relations department e. radio advertising 23. Which of the following is considered to be one of the four problems that can deter a firm from using CRM (customer relationship marketing)? a. Competitors can often hack into CRM systems. b. Building and maintaining a customer database requires a large investment. c. It is very difficult to find and train database employees. d. Long-term results of such systems are still unproven. e. Focusing too much on databases separates a company from its customers. 24. Building a database would not be worthwhile for a company in all of the following cases EXCEPT ________. a. where the product is a one-in-a-lifetime purchase b. where customers show little loyalty to a brand c. where the company already has an above average relationship with its customers d. where the unit sale is very small e. where the cost of gathering the information is too high 25. All of the following are examples of the perils of CRM EXCEPT ________. a. implementing CRM before creating a customer strategy b. the enormous cost that might eventually drain significant profits from the organization c. rolling out CRM before changing the organization to match d. assuming more CRM technology is better e. stalking, not wooing, customers Marketers from which of the following are most likely to use database marketing? f. An airline g. A candy bar manufacturer h. A grand piano maker i. A toothpaste manufacturer j. None of the above would use database marketing.
general business data bank general business data bank Question 281. A good share of total U.S. wholesale sales are made by manufacturers' sales branches because: A. they are well-managed. B. branches are usually placed in the best market areas. C. costs are lower because some marketing functions are eliminated. D. about half of all wholesale businesses are owned by manufacturers. E. All of these are good reasons. 282. A producer has a few territories where many big customers are concentrated, but most of its target customers are spread all over the country. A. The company should use manufacturers' agents in the best territories and sales branches in the others, since good agents won't work in the smaller territories. B. The company should use sales branches everywhere, since it will cost more to use manufacturers' agents. C. The company will probably have to rely only on manufacturers' agents, since they will only be willing to take the widely scattered markets if they can have the good territories too. D. The company should use sales branches in the concentrated territories and manufacturers' agents in the others--assuming the concentrated territories are large enough to support sales branches. E. All of these are good alternatives. 283. The main difference between merchant wholesalers and other wholesalers is that they: A. are more aggressive at selling than agent wholesalers. B. offer fewer wholesaling functions. C. have the lowest operating expenses as a percent of sales. D. own (take title to) the products they handle. E. are willing to perform retailing functions also. 284. Merchant wholesalers A. own the products they sell. B. often specialize by certain types of products or customers. C. take title to the products they are selling for some period before selling to customers. D. constitute almost 85 percent of the wholesaling establishments in the United States. E. all of these alternatives are correct for merchant wholesalers. 285. The two basic types of merchant wholesalers are: A. single-line and limited function. B. agents and merchants. C. service and general line. D. service and limited function. E. single-line and general line. 286. _____ are merchant wholesalers that provide all the wholesaling functions. A. Cash-and-carry wholesalers B. Service wholesalers C. Limited-function wholesalers D. Drop-shippers E. Catalog wholesalers 287. Which of the following is not a type of service wholesaler? A. General merchandise B. Cash-and-carry C. Specialty D. Single-line E. General-line 288. Which of the following is NOT a full-service merchant wholesaler? A. Broker B. Single-line wholesaler C. General-line wholesaler D. General merchandise wholesaler E. Specialty wholesaler 289. Sierra Plumbing, Inc. buys plumbing supplies, pipes, and tools from different manufacturers and resells them to construction companies. Sierra is MOST LIKELY: A. a rack jobber. B. a service (merchant) wholesaler. C. a drop-shipper. D. an agent wholesaler. E. a manufacturers' agent. 290. ____________ wholesalers are service wholesalers that carry a wide variety of nonperishable items. A. General merchandise B. Limited-function C. General-line D. Specialty E. Drop-shipper 291. Compared to specialty wholesalers, general merchandise wholesalers handle: A. a narrower line--or perhaps only a specific line of merchandise. B. almost no physical products. C. a very narrow assortment of products. D. products they do not own, while specialty wholesalers do own them. E. a broader variety of products. 292. C.D. Jamison Co. is a wholesaler in Norfolk, Virginia. It carries a wide variety of merchandise from various producers - everything from bar soap and shampoo to cameras and stereo equipment - that is sold in retail stores on U.S. Navy bases and Navy ships. C.D. Jamison owns the products it resells and provides all the wholesaling functions. C.D. Jamison is a(n): A. Manufacturer sales branch. B. Agent wholesaler. C. Single-line wholesaler. D. Specialty wholesaler. E. General merchandise wholesaler. 293. A full-service wholesaler in Santa Fe takes title to the products it stocks--a full line of home repair products for independent hardware stores. This wholesaler is a: A. selling agent. B. broker. C. specialty wholesaler. D. rack jobber. E. single-line wholesaler. 294. McGovern's Supply stocks electronic repair parts and related supplies and tools from various producers. McGovern's sells primarily to small TV and electronic repair shops throughout the country that only want to order one or two items at a time. Orders are usually shipped out on UPS trucks. It appears that McGovern's is a A. single-line wholesaler. B. manufacturers' agent. C. drop-shipper. D. truck wholesaler. E. rack jobber. 295. General-line wholesalers are wholesalers that A. carry a very narrow range of products and offer more information and service than other service wholesalers. B. carry a wide variety of nonperishable items. C. operate like service wholesalers except that the customer must pay cash. D. provide only some wholesaling functions. E. carry a narrower line of merchandise than general merchandise wholesalers. 296. Which of the following is an example of a service merchant wholesaler? A. Drop-shipper B. Specialty wholesaler C. Catalog wholesaler D. Auction company E. Personal shopper 297. Identify the wholesaler type that carries a very narrow range of products, but offers more information and service than other service wholesalers. A. General merchandise B. Limited-function C. General-line D. Specialty E. Catalog 298. A wholesaler that carries only health foods instead of a full line of groceries is a A. general merchandise wholesaler. B. limited-function wholesaler. C. general-line wholesaler. D. cash-and-carry wholesaler. E. specialty wholesaler. 299. A full-service wholesaler in Madrid takes title to the "oriental foods" she sells to supermarkets, gourmet shops, and restaurants. This wholesaler is a: A. manufacturers' agent. B. specialty wholesaler. C. selling agent. D. single-line wholesaler. E. general merchandise wholesaler. 300. A manufacturer of which of the following product lines would be most likely to use a specialty wholesaler? A. Electric appliances B. Hardware items C. Lumber D. Plastic materials E. Industrial cleaning supplies 301. Which of the following is NOT a limited function merchant wholesaler? A. A truck wholesaler B. A general-line wholesaler C. A rack jobber D. A drop-shipper E. A catalog wholesaler 302. Which of the following is NOT a type of limited-function wholesaler? A. Specialty wholesaler B. Catalog wholesaler C. Truck wholesaler D. Drop-shipper E. Cash-and-carry wholesaler 303. Limited-function wholesalers: A. usually cost more than single-line wholesalers. B. include manufacturers' agents. C. own (take title to) the products they sell. D. usually cost more than specialty wholesalers. E. All of these alternatives are correct for limited-function wholesalers. 304. Which of the following is an example of a limited-function merchant wholesaler? A. Cash-and-carry wholesaler B. Broker C. Mill supply house D. General-line wholesaler E. Specialty wholesaler 305. A cash-and-carry wholesaler does NOT: A. store inventory. B. anticipate his customers' needs. C. take title to the products he sells. D. grant credit. E. stock the products he sells. 306. In the United States, warehouse clubs such as Sam's and Costco serve business customers as: A. Rack jobbers. B. Cash-and-carry wholesalers. C. Truck wholesalers. D. Specialty wholesalers. E. Manufacturers' agents. 307. A drop-shipper is an example of a(n) A. limited-function merchant wholesaler. B. service merchant wholesaler. C. agent wholesaler. D. producer. E. manufacturer's agent. 308. __________ are a type of limited-function wholesaler that owns products they sell, but do not actually handle, stock, or deliver them. A. Rack jobbers B. Catalog wholesalers C. Drop-shippers D. Truck wholesalers E. Cash-and-carry wholesalers 309. Drop-shippers: A. have high operating costs because they do transporting and storing. B. do not stock the products they sell. C. do not take title to the products they sell. D. do not emphasize selling. E. do not anticipate their customers' needs. 310. Which of the following wholesalers do NOT carry stocks for their customers? A. Specialty wholesalers B. Drop-shippers C. Cash-and-carry wholesalers D. Single-line wholesalers E. Catalog wholesalers 311. Drop-shippers: A. are used because it is cheaper for producers to ship to them by rail and let the drop-shipper drop the products off at local retailers with small trucks. B. never take title to the products they sell. C. typically sell large shipments, e.g., rail carloads. D. have very high operating expenses. E. are full-service merchant wholesalers. 312. Which of the following products is most likely to be sold by a drop-shipper? A. Skis B. Toothpaste C. Greeting cards D. Printing supplies E. Coal 313. Andy Cole sells fiberglass resins and fiberglass wire to the many small sailboat manufacturers in southern California. He takes title to the products but does not handle them. Instead, the resins are shipped in 50 gallon barrels directly from the producer to the sailboat manufacturers. Cole is a: A. selling agent. B. cash-and-carry wholesaler. C. manufacturers' agent. D. specialty wholesaler. E. drop-shipper. 314. Truck wholesalers: A. usually sell perishable products that other wholesalers prefer not to carry. B. don't own the products they sell. C. usually sell in large quantities, e.g., truckloads. D. don't stock the products they sell. E. None of these alternatives is correct for truck wholesalers. 315. The biggest advantage of this limited-function wholesaler is that they promptly deliver perishable products that regular wholesalers prefer not to carry. A. Catalog wholesalers B. Rack jobbers C. Truck wholesalers D. Drop-shippers E. Specialty wholesalers 316. Which of the following is a limited-function merchant wholesaler? A. An auction company B. A broker C. A manufacturers' agent D. A general-line wholesaler E. A rack jobber 317. A rack jobber is an example of A. limited-function merchant wholesaler. B. service merchant wholesaler. C. agent wholesaler. D. producer. E. personal shopper. 318. Rack jobbers A. specialize in hard-to-handle assortments of products that a retailer does not want to manage. B. own the products they sell but they do not actually handle, stock, or deliver them. C. promptly deliver perishable products that regular wholesalers prefer not to carry. D. sell out of catalogs that may be distributed widely to smaller industrial customers or retailers. E. are basically manufacturers' agents who specialize in international trade. 319. Rack jobbers: A. don't own the products they sell. B. apply their knowledge of the local market to many stores. C. are full service merchant wholesalers. D. are different from most wholesalers because they specialize in giving small retailers long-term credit. E. All of these are correct for rack jobbers. 320. A grocery store or mass-merchandiser might rely on a _____ to decide which paperback books or magazines it sells. A. catalog wholesaler B. rack jobber C. truck wholesaler D. drop-shipper E. specialty wholesaler
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. Which transport layer protocol is connection oriented? A) UDP B) IP C) TCP D) ICMP Which operating system is immune to virus attacks? A) Windows 7 B) Red Hat Linux C) Mac OS X D) No operating system is immune. 3. The buffer between the outer network where there are no controls and the inner secure network is referred to as the A) DMZ B) Intranet C) Internet D) Extranet 4. The correct sequence of the three-way handshake is A) SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK B) ACK, SYN/ACK, SYN C) SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK D) SYN/SYN, ACK/ACK, SYN/SYN 5. _______________ is the protocol used to resolve an IP address to a MAC address. Correct Answer(s): Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) 6. DNS resolves a domain name to an IP address. A) True B) False 7. Managing the endpoints on a case-by-case basis as they connect is a security methodology known as _______________. 8. Which protocol is responsible for resolving an IP address to a MAC address? A) DNS B) ICMP C) RARP D) ARP 9. _______________ translates private (nonroutable) IP addresses into public (routable) IP addresses. 10. What is called when network components are connected to each other in a closed loop, with each device directly connected to two other devices. A) Hybrid B) Star C) Bus D) Ring 11. Preventing physical access to a server by an unauthorized individual is the A) An organization's least important concern B) Primary security concern for a system administrator C) Reason we implement firewalls D) Responsibility of the CFO of an organization 12. The series of worldwide interconnected networks is referred to as the A) Extranet B) Intranet C) DMZ D) Internet 13. A ________ is a network typically smaller in terms of size and geographic coverage and consist of two or more connected devices. Home or office networks are typically classified as this type of network. A) office area network B) wide area network C) local area network D) internal area network 14. Which transport layer protocol is connectionless? A) IP B) TCP C) ICMP D) UDP 15. What protocol is used to manage IP address space? A) DHCP B) SNMP C) ICMP D) TCP
general business data bank general business data bank Question 1. _______________ is a modulation type that spreads the traffic sent over the entire bandwidth. 2. _______________ is the granting of specific permissions based on the privileges held by the account. 3. A door that requires a thumbprint, key card, and password is an example of A) Mutual authentication B) Multifactor authentication C) Single sign-on D) Dual access control 4. One of the fundamental design aspects of TACACS+ is the separation of authentication, authorization, and accounting. A) True B) False 5. Because the security of wireless LANs is ineffective, many users have switched to a layered security approach. A) True B) False 6. Which of the following protocols involves a three-way handshake and uses a shared secret key for communication? A) S/Telnet B) PAP C) TCP D) CHAP 7. _______________ authentication is a term that describes the use of more than one authentication mechanism at the same time. 8. The three major components of the SSH protocol are the A) User Datagram Protocol, User Encryption Protocol, and Connection Protocol B) Transport Layer Protocol, User Authentication Protocol, and Connection Protocol C) User Datagram Protocol, User Authentication Protocol, and Connection Protocol D) Transport Layer Protocol, User Encryption Protocol, and Connection Protocol 9. The security concern over the so-called WAP gap is when A) WAP protocol is susceptible to Gateway Acquisition Pilfering (gap). B) WAP gateways have a significant lag and hold the messages long enough for them to be decrypted by attackers. C) The encryption fails to translate from one encryption scheme to another. D) WAP gateways perform translation from one encryption standard to another all messages are seen in plaintext by the WAP gateway. 10. Physical access to a machine will enable an attacker to bypass any security measure that has been placed on that machine. A) True B) False 11. _______________ multiplexes or separates the data to be transmitted into smaller chunks and then transmits the chunks on several sub channels. ) 12. _______________ describes a process in which each side of an electronic communication verifies the authenticity of the other. 13. Which type of access control would allow the company to restrict employee access to the payroll file after hours or on weekends? A) Discretionary access control B) Rule-based access control C) Role-based access control D) Mandatory access control 14. Security issues associated with WTLS include which of the following? A) The specifications do not allow connections without high security. B) Clients with low memory or CPU capabilities cannot support encryption. C) WTLS cannot cope with limited processor capacity. D) WTLS cannot cope with small amounts of memory. 15.
accounts data bank accounts data bank Question 81. Europa Company manufactures only one product. Presented below is direct labor information for November. The direct labor flexible-budget variance is: A. $26,624.00 unfavorable. B. $31,948.80 unfavorable. C. $39,936.00 favorable. D. $71,884.80 favorable. E. $103,833.60 favorable. 82. Shade Company adopted a standard cost system several years ago. The standard costs for direct labor and direct materials for its single product are as follows: Materials (5 kilograms x $12.00 per kilogram) = $60.00/unit. Direct labor (3.5 hours x $20.00 per hour) = $70.00/unit. All materials were issued at the beginning of processing. The operating data shown below were taken from the records for December: The actual direct materials purchase price per kilogram is: A. $11.80. B. $11.96. C. $12.04. D. $12.20. E. $12.50. 83. Shade Company adopted a standard cost system several years ago. The standard costs for direct labor and direct materials for its single product are as follows: Materials (5 kilograms x $12.00 per kilogram) = $60.00/unit. Direct labor (3.5 hours x $20.00 per hour) = $70.00/unit. All materials were issued at the beginning of processing. The operating data shown below were taken from the records for December: The actual total cost of direct materials used in production is: A. $458,068. B. $459,862. C. $461,132. D. $462,938. E. $478,400. 84.Shade Company adopted a standard cost system several years ago. The standard costs for direct labor and direct materials for its single product are as follows: Materials (5 kilograms x $12.00 per kilogram) = $60.00/unit. Direct labor (3.5 hours x $20.00 per hour) = $70.00/unit. All materials were issued at the beginning of processing. The operating data shown below were taken from the records for December: The direct materials usage variance for December is: A. $1,800 unfavorable. B. $1,800 favorable. C. $59,400 unfavorable. D. $59,400 favorable. 85. Shade Company adopted a standard cost system several years ago. The standard costs for direct labor and direct materials for its single product are as follows: Materials (5 kilograms x $12.00 per kilogram) = $60.00/unit. Direct labor (3.5 hours x $20.00 per hour) = $70.00/unit. All materials were issued at the beginning of processing. The operating data shown below were taken from the records for December: The direct labor rate variance for December is: A. $1,590 favorable. B. $5,650 favorable. C. $7,790 unfavorable. D. $24,410 unfavorable. E. $59,410 unfavorable. 86. Shade Company adopted a standard cost system several years ago. The standard costs for direct labor and direct materials for its single product are as follows: Materials (5 kilograms x $12.00 per kilogram) = $60.00/unit. Direct labor (3.5 hours x $20.00 per hour) = $70.00/unit. All materials were issued at the beginning of processing. The operating data shown below were taken from the records for December: The direct labor efficiency variance for December is: 1 $1,590 favorable. 2 $5,650 favorable. 3 $7,240 unfavorable. 4 $59,410 unfavorable. 87. Shade Company adopted a standard cost system several years ago. The standard costs for direct labor and direct materials for its single product are as follows: Materials (5 kilograms x $12.00 per kilogram) = $60.00/unit. Direct labor (3.5 hours x $20.00 per hour) = $70.00/unit. All materials were issued at the beginning of processing. The operating data shown below were taken from the records for December: The direct labor flexible-budget variance of the period is: A. $1,590 favorable. B. $5,650 unfavorable. C. $7,040 unfavorable. D. $9,830 unfavorable. 88. Kennedy Inc. has the following data for its operation in August: What was the actual purchase price per unit? A. $3.35. B. $3.40. C. $3.72. D. $3.80. E. $3.85. 89. Kennedy Inc. has the following data for its operation in August: What was the direct materials usage variance in August? A. $180 unfavorable. B. $360 unfavorable. C. $540 favorable. D. $540 unfavorable. E. $720 unfavorable. 90. Matinna Co. maintains no inventories and has the following data pertaining to one of its direct materials in July: All materials purchased during the month were issued to production. What was the direct materials purchase-price variance for July? A. $1,500 favorable. B. $3,000 unfavorable. C. $3,000 favorable. D. $7,500 unfavorable. E. $7,500 favorable. 91. Matinna Co. maintains no inventories and has the following data pertaining to one of its direct materials in July: What was the company's direct materials flexible-budget (FB) variance for July? A. $1,500 favorable. B. $3,000 unfavorable. C. $3,000 favorable. D. $7,500 unfavorable. E. $7,500 favorable. 92. Prokp Co.'s records for April disclosed the following data relating to direct labor: Prokp's standard direct labor rate per hour in April was: A. $16.00. B. $18.00. C. $20.00. D. $24.00. E. $26.67. 93. Prokp Co.'s records for April disclosed the following data relating to direct labor: Prokp's total standard direct labor hours for units produced in April were: A. 890. B. 900. C. 1,000. D. 1,100. E. 1,110. 94. Prokp Co.'s records for April disclosed the following data relating to direct labor: Prokp's total standard direct labor cost for the output in April was: A. $17,600. B. $21,600. C. $22,400. D. $24,000. E. $26,400. 95. Marv Company's direct labor costs for manufacturing its only product were as follows for October: The direct labor efficiency variance for October was: A. $3,000 unfavorable. B. $20,000 favorable. C. $23,000 favorable. D. $30,000 unfavorable. E. $50,000 unfavorable. 96. Marv Company's direct labor costs for manufacturing its only product were as follows for October: The direct labor rate variance for October was: A. $3,000 unfavorable. B. $20,000 favorable. C. $23,000 favorable. D. $30,000 unfavorable. E. $50,000 unfavorable. 97. Marv Company's direct labor costs for manufacturing its only product were as follows for October: The total direct labor variance for October was: A. $7,000 unfavorable. B. $9,000 favorable. C. $9,000 unfavorable. D. $32,000 favorable. E. $54,000 unfavorable. 98. Mandy Company has the following direct labor costs last month: What was Mandy's standard direct labor rate per hour? A. $43.20. B. $45.60. C. $48.00. D. $52.20. 99. Mandy Company has the following direct labor costs last month: What was Mandy's actual direct labor rate per hour? A. $43.20. B. $45.60. C. $48.00. D. $52.20. E. $54.00. 100. Mandy Company has the following direct labor costs last month: What was Mandy's direct labor rate variance? A. $15,120 unfavorable. B. $20,880 unfavorable. C. $23,490 unfavorable. D. $42,480 favorable.