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NEW ORLEANS A CARIBBEAN CITY

Papers must be only 3-4 pages, double spaced, 12-point font. CLEAR THESIS AND CONCLUSION: Make sure your beginning and ending arguments are clear and concise: 2 or 3 sentences -Avoid discussing what and how you are going to answer. Make a simple statement, and hopefully include some specifics in the statement. ADEQUATE ADDRESSING OF PAPER TOPIC: Make sure that you address the paper topic at hand. There is no need to ad-lib on unrelated issues. -Avoid discussing issues that are not relevant to the topic at hand. -EXAMPLES? “The Rum House has two popular dishes which would be, the jerk chicken and their Caribbean inspired taco plate that will melt in your hand as you enjoy it. They have different choices such as chili glazed shrimp, the jerk chicken, or the chopped shrimp with some black beans. Before you get your food, you can order one of their delicious alcoholic beverages. The Rum Punch is a recommended choice and will definitely help quench your thirst while you wait for your meal.” STYLE AND CLARITY: Make sure your writing style is clear, and makes sense to the reader. KEEP IT SIMPLE. -AVOID USING PASSIVE TENSE (WAS and WERE + VERB) -AVOID USING “THIS, THAT, THESE, THOSE” with a descriptive noun -AVOID USING CONTRACTIONS – THERE’S. DON’T, WEREN’T, ETC -AVOID RUN ON SENTENCES (MORE THAN TWO PHRASES) -AVOID PERSONAL PRONOUNS (I, WE, THEY)….. -INTRODUCE DIRECT QUOTES…. EXAMPLE: Africans were able to keep their culture because of Spanish and French laws. This was important, because it let them keep their things and also because it made New Orleans distinct, which I’m happy about. USE OF READINGS IN YOUR EXAMPLES: Use quotations from the readings to back up your argument. -ENCOURAGE YOU TO USE EXCERPTS FROM ASSIGNED READINGS -AVOID USING QUOTES FROM WEBSITES THAT DO NOT CLAIM ANY AUTHOR OR ARE NOT A PROFESSIONAL HISTORICAL ARTICLE – UNLESS YOU ARE ADDRESSING HOW POPULAR CULTURE OR COMMERCIAL ENTITIES (EX. NO CVB, CARIBBEAN TOURISM) ADDRESS THE ISSUE AT HAND USE OF FOOTNOTES OR ENDNOTES: It is necessary to cite or document the historical source of your quotation or idea. MS WORD – CLICK ON REFERENCES (OR INSERT) IN TOP MENU CLICK ON “INSERT FOOTNOTE” or “INSERT ENDNOTE” COMPLETE CITATION IN THE FOOTNOTE/ENDNOTE

bIO156 lab 4

Question
	Answer the following questions:
List four cell structures that are common to both
 plant and animal cells. (4 points)
What structures are unique to plant cells? (2 points)
What structures are unique to animal cells? (2 points)
List five structures observed in the cell images and
 provide the function of each structure. (5 points)
Structure 1 and function
Structure 2 and function
Structure 3 and function
Structure 4 and function
Structure 5 and function
William is observing a single-celled organism under a
 microscope and notices that it has a nucleus and is covered in small,
 hair-like structures.
Provide a probable name for this organism (1 point)
Explain why William came to this conclusion. (2
 points)
Where in the cell are the chloroplasts located? (5
 points)
In osmosis, which direction does water move with
 respect to solute concentration? (2 points)
Answer the following questions:
Explain what would happen to a freshwater unicellular
 organism if it were suddenly released into a saltwater environment. Use
 the terms isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic in the
 answer. (3 points)
What would happen if a marine organism were placed in
 freshwater? (3 points)
A student purchases and weighs 5 pounds of carrots from
 a local grocery store. She notices that the grocery store constantly
 sprays its produce with distilled water. After returning home, she weighs
 the carrots again and discovers that they weigh only 4.2 lbs. They also no
 longer seem as crisp and taut. Provide a possible explanation for why the
 carrots weighed more at the store, based on the information learned in
 this lab. (5 points)
One night, Hans decides to cook a hamburger and
 spaghetti with meatballs. To test ideas of surface-to-volume ratios, he
 makes a quarter pound hamburger and a quarter pound meatball and cooks
 them at the same temperature. Which food item will cook the fastest and
 why? (5 points)
While watching a special on animals, Brianna discovers
 that hares tend to lose heat through their ears. Based on this and what is
 known about surface-to-volume ratios, propose an explanation as to why
 hares that live in hot climates (such as the desert) have large, extended
 ears. (5 points)
(Application)
 How might the information gained from this lab pertaining to cell structures
 and diffusion be useful to a student employed in a healthcare related
 profession? (20 points)

saint mba570 module 7 discussion

Question
	Use Figure 15.7
which I have attached which shows the net debt-to-enterprise value ratio for
some select industries to answer both parts of the question.



Firms in the real estate investment trusts
(REITs), airlines, electric utilities, and paper products industries tend to
have high leverage. Explain why firms in these industries would prefer to have
high leverage?

Firms in the computer hardware, footwear,
apparel and luxury goods, and data processing industries tend to have low
leverage. Explain why firms in these industries would prefer to have low
leverage?

Include some news from an article that is less
than a year old that is applicable to this discussion.

Disscusion Question Computer network security

Question
	Write up a complete tutorial, including an analogy to explain the mechanics
and a graphic to support your analogy, on one of the following
areas:



Buffer
overflows
SQL
injection
Cross-Site
scripting
DoS
attacks
Injection
attacks
Poisoning
attacks


Consider that your audience probably isn't up to speed on how any of these
work. In fact, you may want to test your tutorial on a 'casual' user (parent?
teenager?) to see if they can understand what the problem is. In your responses
to other students, comment on whether the tutorial fits the target audience. Is
it too complicated? Too simple? Too many unexplained acronyms?

Fin 221 Exam 4

Question

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the
question.

1) Several years ago the Haverford Company sold
a $1,000 par value bond that now has 25 years to maturity and an 8.00% annual
coupon that is paid quarterly. The bond currently sells for $900.90, and the
company's tax rate is 40%. What is the component cost of debt for use in the
WACC calculation?

5.40%

5.73%

5.98%

6.09%

6.24%

2) Assume that Mary Brown Inc. hired you as a
consultant to help it estimate the cost of capital. You have been provided with
the following data: D₀= $1.20; P₀= $40.00; and g= 7% (constant). Based on the DCF approach, what is Brown's cost of
equity from retained earnings?

10.06%

10.21%

10.37%

10.54%

10.68%

3) Crum International's target capital structure
calls for 80% debt and 20% equity. The company expects to have $3 million of
net income this year, and 60% of the net income will be paid out in dividends.
How large can the firm's capital budget be this year before it will have to
issue new common stock?

$5.5 million

$6.0 million

$6.3 million

$6.8 million

$7.1 million

4) Assume that you are on the financial staff of
Christopher Inc., and you have collected the following data: (1) The yield
on the company's outstanding bonds is 7.0%, and its tax rate is 40%.
(2) The expected year-end dividend is $0.80 a share, the dividend is
expected to grow at a constant rate of 6% a year, the price of Christopher's
stock is $25 per share, and the flotation cost for selling new shares is 10%.
(3) The target capital structure is 40% debt and 60% equity. What is
Christopher's WACC assuming that it must issue new stock to finance its capital
budget?

7.11%

7.26%

7.41%

7.67%

7.89%

5) Moussawi Enterprises, which finances only
with equity from retained earnings, is considering two large capital budgeting
projects, and its CFO hired you to assist in deciding whether one, both, or
neither of the projects should be accepted. You have the following information:
(1) r_RF= 5.5%; RP_M= 6%; and b= 0.8. (2) The company adds 3% to the corporate WACC when it
evaluates relatively risky projects, and it deducts 1% from the WACC when
evaluating relatively safe projects. (3) Project S is relatively safe, it
costs $10,000, and its expected rate of return is 8%, while Project R is relatively
risky, it costs $15,000, and its expected rate of return is 12%. If these are
the only two projects under consideration, how large should the capital budget
be?

$ 5,000

$10,000

$15,000

$20,000

$25,000

6) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If a company's tax rate increases but the YTM of its noncallable bonds
remains the same, the after-tax cost of its debt will fall.

All else equal, an increase in a company's stock price will increase
its marginal cost of retained earnings, r_s.

All else equal, an increase in a company's stock price will increase
its marginal cost of new common equity, r_e.

Since the money is readily available, the after-tax cost of retained
earnings is usually much lower than the after-tax cost of debt.

When calculating the cost of preferred stock, a company needs to
adjust for taxes, because preferred stock dividends are tax deductible.

7) Maese Sisters Inc has been paying out all of
its earnings as dividends, and hence has no retained earnings. This same
situation is expected to persist in the future. The company uses the CAPM to
calculate its cost of equity. Its target capital structure consists of common
stock, preferred stock, and debt. Which of the following events would reduce
the WACC?

The flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock increase.

The market risk premium declines.

The company's beta increases.

Expected inflation increases.

The flotation costs associated with issuing preferred stock increase.

8) The Nunnally Company has equal amounts of
low-risk, average-risk, and high-risk projects. Nunnally estimates that its
overall WACC is 12%. The CFO believes that this is the correct WACC for the
company's average-risk projects, but that a lower rate should be used for lower
risk projects and a higher rate for higher risk projects. However, the CEO
argues that, even though the company's projects have different risks, the WACC
used to evaluate each project should be the same because the company obtains
capital for all projects from the same sources. If the CEO's opinion is
followed, what is likely to happen over time?

The company will take on too many low-risk projects and reject too
many high-risk projects.

The company will take on too many high-risk projects and reject too
many low-risk projects.

Things will generally even out over time, and, therefore, the firm's
risk should remain constant over time.

The company's overall WACC should decrease over time because its stock
price should be increasing.

The CEO's recommendation would maximize the firm's intrinsic value.

9) Given the following information, what is the
required cash outflow associated with the acquisition of a new machine; that
is, in a project analysis, what is the cash outflow at t= 0?

Purchase price of new machine

$8,000

Installation charge

2,000

Market value of old machine

2,000

Book value of old machine

1,000

Inventory decrease if new machine

is installed

1,000

Accounts payable increase if new

machine is installed

500

Tax rate

35%

Cost of capital

15%

-$ 8,980

-$ 6,460

-$ 5,200

-$ 6,850

-$12,020

10) Blanchford Enterprises is considering a
project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's
discounted payback?

Year:

Cash flows:

-$1,000

$500

2.01 years

2.26 years

2.65 years

2.84 years

3.17 years

11) Rockmont Recreation Inc. is considering a
project that has the following cash flow and WACC data. What is the project's
MIRR? Note that a project's projected MIRR can be less than the WACC (and even
negative), in which case it will be rejected.

WACC= 10%

Year:

Cash flows:

-$900

$300

$320

$340

$360

13.33%

14.01%

15.69%

16.35%

17.18%

12) Pettway Inc. is considering Projects S and L,
whose cash flows are shown below. These projects are mutually exclusive,
equally risky, and not repeatable. If the decision is made by choosing the
project with the higher IRR, how much value will be foregone? Note that under
some conditions choosing projects on the basis of the IRR will cause $0.00
value to be lost.

WACC= 12%

Year:

CF_S:

-$1,025

$375

$380

$385

$390

CF_L:

-$2,153

$750

$759

$768

$777

$15.57

$21.49

$28.02

$33.69

$37.39

13) You must find the payback for a project, and
you have misplaced some of the information that you were given. You know that
the project will generate positive cash flows of $60,000 per year at the end of
each of the next 5 years, that its NPV is $75,000, and that the company's WACC
is 10%. What is the project's regular payback? Hint: You must first find the
project's cost, then use it to find the payback.

2.11 years

2.27 years

2.38 years

2.45 years

2.54 years

14) Assume a project has normal cash flows. All
else equal, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

The project's IRR increases as the WACC declines.

The project's NPV increases as the WACC declines.

The project's MIRR is unaffected by changes in the WACC.

The project's regular payback increases as the WACC declines.

The project's discounted payback increases as the WACC declines.

15) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one
outflow followed by a series of inflows.

A project's NPV is found by compounding the cash inflows at the IRR to
find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the WACC.

The lower the WACC used to calculate it, the lower the calculated NPV
will be.

If a project's NPV is less than zero, then its IRR must be less than
the WACC.

If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less
than zero.

The NPV of a relatively low risk project should be found using a
relatively high WACC.

16) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

One advantage of the NPV over the IRR method is that NPV takes account
of cash flows over a project's full life whereas IRR does not.

One advantage of the NPV over the IRR is that NPV assumes that cash
flows will be reinvested at the WACC whereas IRR assumes that cash flows are
reinvested at the IRR, and the NPV's assumption is generally more likely to
be appropriate.

One advantage of the NPV over the MIRR method is that NPV takes
account of cash flows over a project's full life whereas MIRR does not.

One advantage of the NPV over the MIRR method is that NPV discounts
cash flows whereas the MIRR is based on undiscounted cash flows.

Since cash flows under the IRR and MIRR are both discounted at the
same rate (the WACC), these two methods always rank mutually exclusive
projects in the same order.

17) Projects C and D are mutually exclusive and
have normal cash flows. Project C has a higher NPV if the WACC is less than
12%, whereas Project D has a higher NPV if the WACC exceeds 12%. Which of the
following statements is CORRECT?

Project D has a higher IRR.

Project D is probably larger in scale than Project C.

Project C probably has a faster payback.

Project C has a higher IRR.

The crossover rate between the two projects is below 12%.

18) Sacramento Paper is considering two equally
risky, mutually exclusive projects, and both projects have normal cash flows.
Project A has an IRR of 11%, while Project B has an IRR of 14%. When the WACC
is 8%, the projects have the same NPV. Given this information, which of the
following statements is CORRECT?

If the WACC is 13%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's.

If the WACC is 9%, Project A's NPV will be higher than Project B's.

If the WACC is 6%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's.

If the WACC goes over 14%, Project A's IRR will exceed Project B's.

If the WACC is 9%, Project B's NPV will be higher than Project A's.

19) As a member of Gamma Corporation's financial
staff, you must estimate the Year 1 operating net cash flow for a proposed
project with the following data. What is the Year 1 operating cash flow?

Sales

$33,000

Depreciation

$10,000

Other operating costs

$17,000

Interest expense

$ 4,000

Tax rate

35%

$ 9,500

$10,600

$11,700

$12,800

$13,900

20) Big Air Services is now in the final year of
a project. The equipment originally cost $20 million, of which 75% has been
depreciated. Big Air can sell the used equipment today for $6 million, and its
tax rate is 40%. What is the equipment's after-tax net salvage value?

$500,000

$600,000

$700,000

$800,000

$900,000

21) The Movie Place is considering a new
investment whose data are shown below. The required equipment has a 3-year tax
life and would be fully depreciated by the straight line method over the 3
years, but it would have a positive salvage value at the end of Year 3, when
the project would be closed down. Also, some new working capital would be
required, but it would be recovered at the end of the project's life. Revenues
and other operating costs are expected to be constant over the project's 3-year
life. What is the project's NPV?

WACC

10%

Net equipment cost (depreciable basis)

$65,000

Required new working capital

$10,000

Straight line depr'n rate

33.33%

Sales revenues

$70,000

Operating costs excl. depr'n

$25,000

Expected pretax salvage value

$ 5,000

Tax rate

35%

$24,971.86

$25,538.17

$26,553.97

$27,356.82

$28,879.81

22) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A sunk cost is any cost that must be expended in order to complete a
project and bring it into operation.

A sunk cost is any cost that was expended in the past but can be
recovered if the firm decides not to go forward with the project.

A sunk cost is a cost that was incurred and expensed in the past and
cannot be recovered if the firm decides not to go forward with the project.

Sunk costs were formerly hard to deal with, but once the NPV method
came into wide use, it became possible to simply include sunk costs in the
cash flows and then calculate the PV.

A good example of a sunk cost is a situation where a retailer opens a
new store, and that leads to a decline in sales of some of the firm's
existing stores.

23) Which of the following factors should be
included in the cash flows used to estimate a project's NPV?

All costs associated with the project that have been incurred to date.

Interest on funds borrowed to help finance the project.

The end-of-project recovery of any working capital required to operate
the project.

Cannibalization effects, but only if those effects increase the
project's projected cash flows.

Expenditures to date on research and development related to the
project that have already been expensed for tax purposes.

24) Berry Beverage Company spent $3 million two
years ago to build a plant for a project. It then decided not to go forward
with the project, so the building is available for sale or for a new project.
It owns the building free and clear---there is no mortgage on it. Which of the
following statements is CORRECT?

Since the building has been paid for, it can be used by another
project with no additional cost. Therefore, it should not be reflected in the
cash flows for any new project or projects.

If the building could be sold, then the after-tax proceeds that would
be generated by any such sale should be charged as a cost to any new project
that would use it.

This is an example of an externality, because the very existence of
the building affects the cash flows for any new project the Berry might
consider.

Since the building was built in the past, its cost is a sunk cost and
thus need not be considered when new projects are being evaluated, even if it
would be used by those new projects.

If there was a mortgage loan on the building, then the interest on
that loan would have to be charged to the new project.

25) Merlin Labs has an overall (composite) WACC
of 10%, which reflects the cost of capital for its average asset. Its assets
vary widely in risk, and Merlin evaluates low-risk projects with a WACC of 8%,
average projects at 10%, and high-risk projects at 12%. The company is considering
the following projects:

Project

Risk

Expected Return

High

15%

Average

High

Low

Which set of projects would maximize shareholder wealth?

A and B.

A, B, and C.

A, B, and D.

A, B, C, and D.

A, B, C, D, and E.

general business data bank

Question
21. Single word utterances accompanied by
gestures, actions, vocal intonation, and emotion are called ____.

a. holophrases

b. telegraphic speech

c. fast mapping

d. transformations

22. _______ refers to rules that guide the
combination of words and phrases in order to preserve meaning.

a. Grammar

b. Vocabulary

c. Language

d. Symbols

23. What is the difference between
language production and receptive language?

a. The first is the ability to
understand meaning; the second is the ability to convey one's meaning.

b. The first is the ability to
communicate without language; the second is the ability to communicate with
language.

c. The first is the ability to
communicate with language; the second is the ability to understand the language
of others.

d. The first is the ability to speak;
the second is the ability to use gestures.

24. What is telegraphic speech?

a. one word expressions

b. whining, cooing, and grunting

c. two-word sentences

d. vocalization without meaning

25. "Allgone Daddy," and
"Go ByeBye" are examples of ____________________.

a. gestures

b. holophrases

c. fast mapping

d. telegraphic speech

26. Which statement best characterizes
early two-word expressions for children across cultures?

a. There is great variation in the types
of words and word combinations used within each culture.

b. Children in all cultures say
"allgone" or its equivalent as one of their very first two-word
sentences.

c. Children rarely make reference to
movement or action words.

d. Only English-speaking children use
two-word sentences.

27. What are grammatical transformations?

a. rules for word order and for adding
modifiers or inflections to convey meaning

b. rules for two-word sentences

c. rules for polite speech

d. ways of expanding on a young
child's language

28. A three-year-old may say, "I
runned fast." This is an example of _________________.

a. two-word sentences

b. overregularization

c. expansion

d. scaffolding

29. Which of the following is the earliest
milestone in language development?

a. vocabulary of more than 75 words

b. two-word sentences

c. responding to commands such as
"Show me your nose"

d. frustration expressed when not
understood by adults

30. Marina
has a vocabulary of over 50 words and uses two-word phrases. She likes to talk
and clearly enjoys participating in social talk. About how old is Marina?

a. 12 months

b. 18 months

c. 24 months

d. 36 months

31. In what way(s) does language play a
critical role in adolescent and adult psychosocial crises, especially the
establishment of group identity, intimacy, and generativity?

a. attain levels of disclosure that
sustain significant personal relationships

b. serves as a mechanism for resolving
conflicts

c. serves as a mechanism for building
a sense of cohesiveness within groups

d. all of these

32. Among the choices below, which is the
most important factor that caregivers contribute for the cognitive growth of
their toddler?

a. nutritious meals

b. opportunities for verbal interaction

c. providing for safety

d. enrollment in childcare

33. Adults in white, middle-class, Western
societies tend to use which of the following techniques when speaking to
toddlers in order to facilitate the children’s language acquisition?

a. They use simplified, redundant
utterances that correspond with the child’s interests and comprehension
levels.

b. They use long, complex sentences to
extend the child’s language abilities.

c. They emphasize the future and the
past so that the child becomes aware of time in his/her speech.

d.
They tease their children, particularly
in the presence of others, in order to give the children a chance to develop a
quick wit.

34. What is a benefit of bilingualism to a
child?

a. expands access to concepts

b. there is no benefit, this causes
the child to be confused

c. expands sociability

d. the child can hold dual citizenship

35. During the time when José was learning
to talk, his parents spoke to him a great deal, and José and his parents often
took turns in their interactions. One of
the parents was often in the same room with José. When Mark was learning to talk, his parents
were mostly silent, waiting for him to say things. Usually they were in a different room and
shouted commands such as “Play with your stacker.” What would you predict the relationship between
José and Mark’s IQ would be at 3 years
of age?

a. There would be no difference in IQ.

b. Mark would have a higher IQ.

c. José would have a higher verbal IQ.

d. José would have a higher verbal IQ,
and Stephane would have a higher nonverbal IQ.

36. Recent research has shown that 3- and
4-year-old children are ______ before incorporating words into their
vocabulary.

a. unable to assess the expertise of
their language partner

b. able to assess the expertise of
their language partner

c. under stress

d. able to grasp the complete meaning

37. Timmy says: "Allgone daddy,"
and his mother says: “Yes, Timmy, daddy has gone to work." This is an
example of ________.

a. grammar

b. lack of match between parent and
child

c. expansion

d. motherese

38. What is a child’s language partner’s
purpose in using expansion and prompting when interacting with a toddler?

a. to show the child that speaking
well does not require the use of sentences that are grammatically correct

b. to increase the child’s ability to
fastmap words

c. to help the child communicate more
effectively by expanding on or asking the child to elaborate on something of
interest to him/her

d. to model a problem solving strategy
that the child can use when dealing with complex situations

39. Which of the following has been
identified as an especially important activity in preparing a child for
literacy and for expanding a child’s language skills?

a. drawing with friends

b. reading silently

c. watching television

d. reading aloud

40. Which of the following predicts the
level of a child’s language development at ages 2 and 3?

a. the child’s age at jumping

b. playing social games as an infant

c. conversations between mother and
daycare teacher

d. when the child began to babble

STRESS; DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY FOR THIS ASSIGNMENT IS STRESS.

Order Description The Topic in developmental psychology for this assignment is STRESS. You will research the topic in the school library (in online databases and/or hard copy journals I WILL PROVIDE INSTURCTIONS HOW TO ACCESS IT) and on the Internet and determine what new information has become available in the last 5 years. Once you have completed your research, you will prepare an ANNOTATED BIBLIOGRAPHY on the topic of Stress. The annotated bibliography must follow the formatting and style suggested by the American Psychological Association (APA) and should meet the following requirements. The annotated bibliography should contain a minimum of five (5) pages one (1) is just presentation The annotated bibliography should contain a minimum of eight (8) SCIENTIFICALLY RECOGNIZED REFERENCES The bibliography should be double-spaced with a 12-point Times New Roman font The first page should be a title page that contains the following: o the bibliography title o Room for name o the course number and name o the term and year

Accunting question

Question
3. (TCO 6) Yappy Company is considering a capital investment of $320,000 in additional equipment. The new equipment is expected to have a useful life of 8 years with no salvage value. Depreciation is computed by the straight-line method. During the life of the investment, annual net income and cash inflows are expected to be $25,000 and $65,000, respectively. Yappy requires a 10% return on all new investments.

Part (a) Compute each of the following:
1: Payback period.
2: Net present value.
3: Profitability index.
4: Internal rate of return.
5: Accounting rate of return.
(b) Indicate whether the investment should be accepted or rejected. (Points : 30)

4. (TCO 7) The management of Horton Company estimates that credit sales for August, September, October, and November will be $270,000, $375,000, $420,000, and $240,000, respectively. Experience has shown that collections are made as follows:
In month of sales 25%
In first month after sale 60%
In second month after sales 10%

Determine the collections from customers in October and November. Show all computations. (Points : 30)

5. (TCO 8) Western Company’s budgeted and actual sales for 2009 were:
Product Budgeted Sales Actual Sales
A 10,250 units at $16.00 per unit 12,130 units at $15.60 per unit
B 15,560 units at $12.00 per unit 12,940 units at $12.40 per unit

Part (a) Calculate the sales volume variance.
Part (b) Calculate the sales price variance.
Part (c) Calculate the total sales variance. (Points : 30)

6. (TCO 9) Mace Company accumulates the following data concerning a mixed cost, using miles as the activity level.
Miles Driven Total Cost
January 10,000 $15,000
February 8,000 13,500
March 9,000 14,400
April 7,500 12,500

Compute the variable and fixed cost elements using the high-low method. (Points : 30)

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Question
	31.Which
of the following expenses are completely deductible?

a)
$1,000 spent on compensating your brother for a personal expense.

b)
$50 spent on meals while traveling on business.

c)
$2,000 spent by the employer on reimbursing an employee for entertainment.

d)
All of these expenses are fully deductible.

e)
None of these expenses can be deducted in full.

32.Which
of the following business expense deductions is most likely to be unreasonable
in amount?

a)
Compensation paid to the taxpayer's spouse in excess of salary payments to
other employees.

b)
Amounts paid to a subsidiary corporation for services where the amount is in
excess of the cost of comparable services by

competing
corporations.

c)
Cost of entertaining a former client when there is no possibility of any future
benefits from a relation with that client.

d)
None of these is likely to be unreasonable in amount.

e)
Compensation paid to the taxpayer's spouse in excess of salary payments to
other employees, amounts paid to a subsidiary

corporation
for services where the amount is in excess of the cost of comparable services
by competing corporations, and cost of

entertaining
a former client when there is no possibility of any future benefits from a
relation with that client are all likely to be

considered
unreasonable in amount.

33.The
domestic manufacturing deduction is a deduction for the incremental cost of
manufacturing tangible assets in the United

States.

•
True

•
False

34.Reasonable
in amount means that expenditures can be exorbitant as long as the activity is
motivated by profit.

True

False

35.All
taxpayers must account for taxable income using a calendar year.

•
True

•
False

36.The full-inclusion
method requires cash basis taxpayers to include prepayments for goods or
services into realized income.

True

False

37.The
phase "ordinary and necessary" has been defined to mean that an
expense must be essential and indispensable to the conduct

of
a business.

True

False

38.Illegal
bribes and kickbacks are not deductible as business expenses, but this
prohibition does not include fines incurred in the

ordinary
course of business.

•
True

•
False

39.Qualified
production activity income for calculating the domestic manufacturing deduction
is limited to taxable income for a

business
or modified AGI for an individual.

True

False

40.A
business generally adopts a fiscal or calendar year by using that year end on
the first tax return for the business.

True

False

41.The
domestic manufacturing deduction cannot exceed 50 percent of the wages paid to
employees engaged in domestic

manufacturing
activities during the year.

True

False

42.Only
half the cost of a business meal is deductible even if the meal is associated
with the active conduct of business.

True

False

43.A
fiscal tax year can end on the last day of any month other than December.

True

False

44.Uniform
capitalization of indirect inventory costs is required for most large
taxpayers.

True

False

45.The
test for whether an expenditure is reasonable in amount is whether the
expenditure was for an "arm's length" amount.

True

False

46.The
Internal Revenue Code authorizes deductions for trade or business activities if
the expenditure is "ordinary and necessary".

•
True

•
False

47.Sole
proprietorships must use the same tax year as the proprietor of the business.

True

False

48.The
all-events test for income determines the period in which income will be
recognized for tax purposes.

True

False

49.The
12-month rule allows taxpayers to deduct the entire amount of certain prepaid
business expenses.

True

False

50.When a
taxpayer borrows money and invests the loan proceeds in municipal bonds, the
interest paid by the taxpayer on the debt

will
not be deductible.

True

False

51.Business activities are distinguished
from personal activities in that business activities are motivated by the
pursuit of profits.

True

False

52.Employees cannot deduct the cost of
uniforms if the uniforms are also appropriate for normal wear.

True

False

53.The Internal Revenue Code authorizes
deductions for trade or business activities if the expenditure is
"ordinary and necessary".

True

False

54.The
domestic manufacturing deduction cannot exceed 50 percent of the wages paid to
employees engaged in domestic

manufacturing
activities during the year.

•
True

• False

HINDU MYTHS IN THE ART OF SOUTH AND SOUTHEAST ASIA

Order Description Write an essay, inspired by the following question: What are the different research steps in a study of mythological themes represented on Indian temples or other religious structures, if the main aim is to understand their meaning in their culture historical context?Illustrate the research steps through examples as provided by the articles that we have been reading. Note problems that one may encounter in each research step, as these are also found in the articles that we have been reading

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HINDU MYTHS IN THE ART OF SOUTH AND SOUTHEAST ASIA

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