In addition to the legislation and guidelines that may apply,
Subject: Business / Finance
Question
In addition to the legislation and guidelines that may apply, the investment policy that is decided upon by the investment manager (for a client) should include all the following elements EXCEPT
A: specific goals about continuing education
B: the asset classes for investment
C: rate of return expectations (including timeframe) and expected volatility
D: an investment review process
E: a policy review process
Return metrics, risk-adjusted return metrics, and benchmarking are all examples of
A: monitoring.
B: performance evaluation.
C: manager selection.
D: assessment of capital markets.
E: none of the above
The financial planning process include all of the following EXCEPT
A: assessing the current status of the financial markets.
B: analyzing the client’s financial status.
C: monitoring the portfolio.
D: developing a policy statement.
E: establishing a client-advisor relationship.
Commonly used sentiment indicators include all of the following EXCEPT
A: short-interest ratio.
B: volatility index.
C: insider trading activity.
D: put/call ratio.
E: long-interest ratio.
An active approach to investing
A: focuses on individual security selections.
B: has lower research costs than a passive approach.
C: assumes financial markets are efficient.
D: has lower trading costs than a passive approach.
E: all of these choices are true.
Features of dollar cost averaging include all of the following EXCEPT
A: purchase of fewer shares when prices are high.
B: lower average price per share if prices are variable.
C: greater unrealized gains if prices increase.
D: purchase of more shares when prices are low.
E: a predictable investment outlay.
A short sale occurs when an investor does which of the following?
A: buys a stock and uses it as collateral for a loan
B: sells a stock at a loss
C: borrows a stock and then sells it
D: sells a stock for less than fair market value
E: none of these are examples of a short sale
Jason is unhappy with the performance of his mutual fund. He sells his shares in the current fund and repurchases shares in a similar fund with the same firm. This transaction
A: is not a taxable event since the two funds are similar.
B: is not a taxable event since the funds are with the same company.
C: is a taxable event.
D: may not be a taxable event if the shares have been held for more than one year.
E: may not be a taxable event if the managers of the two funds are different.
Tax-efficient investment strategies include
A: adjusting for taxable and after-tax yields.
B: adjusting for capital gains taxes versus ordinary income taxes.
C: controlling the timing of recognition of gains and losses.
D: considering tax effects of mutual fund investing.
E: all of these are tax-efficient strategies.
The best type of asset to include in a tax-deferred retirement plan is
A: treasury bond.
B: corporate bond.
C: growth stock.
D: municipal bond.
E: equity mutual fund.
Factors that should be considered in the purchase of a stock includes all of the following EXCEPT
A: dividends.
B: growth potential.
C: quality of a firm’s management.
D: coupon rate on a firm’s bonds.
E: price.
Joe purchased 1,000 shares of IBM several years ago for $60. Joe died yesterday. The closing price of IBM was $90. The “basis” of this stock for federal estate tax purposes is
A: $ 0.
B: $30,000.
C: $45,000.
D: $60,000.
E: $90,000.
Preferred stock with cumulative fixed dividends
A: are required to pay dividends each quarter.
B: must pay the missed dividend before common shareholders can receive dividends.
C: are taxed on the accumulated dividends.
D: are considered to be bankrupted if one year of dividends is missed.
E: all of the above are true
Types of permanent insurance policies include all of the following EXCEPT
A: universal life.
B: straight life.
C: whole life.
D: variable life.
E: all of the above are types of permanent insurance policies
Advantages of investing in a life insurance policy include which of the following?
A: complex evaluation is needed to decide on the appropriate policy.
B: higher premiums for those in moderately poor health.
C: proceeds from the policy are not subject to federal income taxes.
D: it is not often available to persons in extremely poor health.
E: the cost of coverage reduces the amount of funds available for current consumption or investment in the future.
Some form of annuity would be indicated when
A: investors want a retirement income that they can never outlive.
B: as a supplement to an IRA.
C: when investors want more control over their investment and are willing to bear the risk associated with the selection.
D: when investors want a monthly income equal to or higher than could be generated by other conservative investments.
E: all of the above.
Factors that are used to determine if an investor is a “dealer” in real estate include all of the following EXCEPT
A: number and frequency of sales.
B: development and improvements that have been made.
C: amount of the original purchase price that was financed.
D: length of time the property has been held.
E: existence of a sales office.
Methods to hold real estate as an investment include all of the following EXCEPT
A: limited partnerships.
B: C corporations.
C: L corporations.
D: REITs.
E: all of the above are methods to invest in real estate.
Disadvantages of investing in real estate investment trusts (REITs) include all of the following EXCEPT
A: large initial investment.
B: loss of control in management of assets.
C: lower potential return than direct investment in real estate.
D: all of the above are disadvantages to investing in REITs.
E: A and C are disadvantages, but B is not.
Which of the following risk factors is least important for Mortgaged-Backed Securities (MBS)?
A: inflation (purchasing power) risk
B: reinvestment risk
C: liquidity risk
D: interest rate risk
E: none of the above risk factors is a major problem for MBSs
Advantages of investing in oil and gas include all of the following EXCEPT
A: a deduction for the depletion of the oil or gas reserve in the ground.
B: the possibility of paying the alternative minimum tax.
C: unlimited liability.
D: long-term capital gain treatment upon the sale of his or her interest.
E: losses that are tax deductible.
Disadvantages of investing in precious metals include all of the following EXCEPT
A: possible government controls.
B: no current income.
C: sales taxes may be imposed.
D: potentially high returns.
E: assay costs may be involved.
Venture capital firms may
A: assist in the development of new products and services.
B: contribute management expertise.
C: share past experience from other venture capital investments.
D: play an active role overall in the business they finance.
E: all of these choices are accurate.
Advantages of investing in American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) include
A: increased international diversification.
B: lower exchange rate risk.
C: less complicated and more favorable taxes.
D: increased availability of information.
E: all of the above are advantages of investing in ADRs.
Cash flows that a company generates in excess of the necessary investments in the company’s assets are
A: cash dividends.
B: free cash flow to equity.
C: earnings.
D: book value.
E: none of these choices fits the definition.
What is the correlation with the greatest potential for diversification?
A: -1.0
B: -0.5
C: 0.0
D: +1.0
E: +2.0
Common behavioral finance issues include
A: confirmation bias.
B: loss aversion.
C: mental accounting.
D: optimism.
E: all of these choices are common behavioral finance issues.
The portfolio on the efficient frontier that is selected by an investor depends on
A: the level of market activity.
B: the investor’s risk-return indifference curves.
C: the investor’s financial position.
D: the level of interest rates in the market.
E: the investor’s liquidity position.
The semi-strong form of the efficient market hypothesis states that
A: security prices reflect all information, public and private.
B: security prices reflect all public information.
C: security prices reflect all market information.
D: security prices reflect all accounting information.
E: security prices reflect all economic information.
Cameron pays 15% in dividend and capital gains taxes and 35% in ordinary income taxes. Ten years ago, Cameron purchased a position in a limited partnership for $10,000. Three years later, she was required to contribute $2,000 more to the partnership. Two years ago, she was required to contribute an additional $2,000. If Cameron sells her limited partnership investment today for $20,000, what are the taxes?
A: $ 900
B: $1,500
C: $2,100
D: $2,700
E: $3,500
Iris pays 15% in dividends and capital gains taxes and 35% in ordinary income taxes. Several years ago, she purchased a Mortgage-Backed Security (MBS) for $20,000 which was the par value of the underlying assets. At the end of this year, she received a statement stating she had received $700 in scheduled amortization of principal, $1,200 in interest, and $500 in unscheduled collection of principal. What is Iris’s after-tax cash flow this year from this investment?
A: $1,560
B: $1,695
C: $1,980
D: $2,040
E: $2,400
Corey pays 15% in dividend and capital gains taxes and 35% in ordinary income taxes. Four years ago, she invested $500,000 in a private placement offering with some friends. The initial price was $50 a share. The investment group is now discussing the possibility of publicly selling their shares. One of the members of the group believes they could get at least $75 a share. If this is correct, what are Corey’s taxes when she sells her shares (ignoring commissions and fees)?
A: $0 because the group is not allowed to sell their private placement shares to the public
B: $37,500
C: $54,000
D: $70,000
E: $87,500
Stella pays 15% in dividend and capital gains taxes and 35% in ordinary income taxes. In 1990, she paid $1,000 for three American Eagle $50 gold coins (1 oz gold) and $340 for one coin in December 2003. In July 2004, she sold all four coins to net $460 each. What is the after-tax cash flow from this investment?
A: $150
B: $247
C: $401
D: $425
E: $500
A 6.4% preferred stock has a par value of $30 and is currently selling in the market at $40. The quarterly dividend for this stock is
A: $0.16.
B: $0.48.
C: $0.64.
D: $1.92.
E: $2.56.
Three years ago, Charles purchased a $1,000 face value 10-year Treasury note for par. The market value of this bond is now $950. If Charles sells the bond today, the tax implications of sale are
A: $50 loss against ordinary income
B: $50 capital gain
C: $50 capital loss
D: $50 gain against ordinary income
E: No tax effects since Treasury securities are exempt from taxes
XYZ Corporation has a cumulative preferred stock that pays $1 per share per quarter. The firm did not declare a dividend the last two quarters. To be able to pay dividends to common shareholders, the preferred stock dividend this coming quarter must be
A: XYZ does not need to pay preferred stock dividends to be able to pay common stock dividends
B: $1
C: $2
D: $3
E: $4
Zack needs a $100,000 loan to start his new business. Due to his age and inexperience, he is unable to obtain a bank loan. Possible alternatives to raise the funds include all of the following EXCEPT
A: promissory note from his mother.
B: having his mother co-sign a bank loan.
C: selling personal assets.
D: issuing debt in the market.
E: all of the above are possible sources of funds for Zack.