What are the answers to this problem set

What are the answers to this problem set


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Problem Set 3 Meiosis and Genetics
Watch the following online animations and use them to help you answer the questions
below:
Meiosis
http://media.pearsoncmg.com/pcp/ph_blast/animations/genetics/cell_division/meiosis/me
iosis_w.htm
Compare Meiosis to Mitosis
http://media.pearsoncmg.com/pcp/ph_blast/animations/genetics/cell_division/mitosis_me
iosis_comp/mitosis_vs_meiosis_w.htm
1. Fill in the following schematic of meiosis:

3
3

1

1
2

2

Cell destined to
become a gamete

Draw Cell After S Phase

Draw Cell After G2

Cell in Late Prophase I

3
1

2

Draw Cell in Metaphase I

Draw Cell in Anaphase I

3
1

2

Cells After the First Cytokinesis

1

Cells in Metaphase II

Cells at Telophase II

Cells at the end of Meiosis

2. Is the cell in the image to the left in mitosis or
meiosis? What stage of mitosis or meiosis is this
cell in?

3. This cell has four chromosomes when it is diploid. Is
the cell in mitosis or meiosis? What stage of mitosis or
meiosis is it in?

2

4. This cell has four chromosomes when it is
diploid. Is the cell in mitosis or meiosis? What
stage of mitosis or meiosis is it in?

5. What are the major differences between meiosis and mitosis?

6. How many times does interphase occur during meiosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

0
1
2
3

7. Which of the following are key features of S phase? (circle all that apply)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

homologs pair
recombination occurs
sister chromatids are replicated
chromosomes are replicated
centrosomes are replicated

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8. Which of the following are events in Prophase I in the order that they occur?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chromosomes replicate then synapse
Chromosomes condense, recombine then synapse
Chromosomes replicate, condense, recombine then synapse
Chromosomes synapse and then recombine

9. Synapsis that occurs during Meiosis I is mediated by the _____________
complex.
10. Which of the following occur during Metaphase I? (circle all that apply)
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chiasma disappear
chromosomes migrate to the middle of the cell
homologs segregate from each other
the meiotic spindle breaks down

11. Which of the following occur during Metaphase II? (circle all that apply)
a.
b.
c.
d.

chiasma disappear
chromosomes migrate to the middle of the cell
homologues segregate from each other
the meiotic spindle breaks down

12. Which of the following occur during Anaphase II? (circle all that apply)
a.
b.
c.
d.

Sister chromatids migrate to the center of the cell
homologs segregate from each other
sister chromatids segregate from each other
the meiotic spindle breaks down.

13. Which of the following occur during Prophase II? (circle all that apply)
a.
b.
c.
d.

centrosomes replicate
the meiotic spindle breaks down
recombination occurs between homologs
chromosomes line up at the middle of the cell

14. Which of the following occur during Telophase II? (circle all that apply)
a.
b.
c.
d.

chromosomes finish moving to opposite sides of the cell
nuclear envelope reforms
chromosomes replicate
recombination occurs

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15. What is the difference between telophase and cytokinesis?

16. Define the principles of segregation and independent assortment.

17. In a particular breed of dog, the dominant allele B produces black coat color,
while b produces brown.
a. If a litter of puppies has both black and brown offspring, what are the
possible genotypes of the parents?

b. If a black and brown dog can produce black and brown puppies when
they mate, what should be the ratio of black puppies to brown puppies
in a litter?

18. Tongue rolling is a dominant trait in humans (T), while the inability to tongue
roll is recessive. A woman who can roll her tongue marries a man who cannot.
Their first child is also not a tongue roller.
a. What are the phenotypes of each parent, and the first child?

b. What is the probability that their second child will be a tongue roller?

c. A non-tongue roller?

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19. In a test cross with the following pea plant (Gg Tt RR Ss), where genes show
independent assortment:
a. What is the expected frequency of gg tt Rr ss progeny?

b. What is the expected frequency of progeny that are heterozygous for all
of the genes?

20. Color blindness is a recessive, sex-linked trait. A color blind woman has a
normal mother.
a. What is the genotype of the color blind woman’s father?

b. The color blind woman marries a normal man. What is the probability
that their sons will be colorblind?
c. What is the probability that their daughters will be colorblind?
21. Use the following pedigree to determine the probability that IV-1 (child yet to
be
AA

I.

aa

AA

II.

AA

2

III.

3

IV.
= has albinism
= consanguineous marriage
(cousins)

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22. Assuming the following pedigrees, is the trait autosomal or sex-linked, and
dominant or recessive?
a.

b.

23. Incomplete dominance _________.
a. Is the presences of three or more alleles of a gene among individuals of a
population
b. Causes heterozygous offspring to have an phenotype that is intermediate
between the two parental phenotypes
c. Is when two genes at different loci both affect the same phenotype
d. Causes there to be a lack of production of heterozygous offspring

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Use the following information to answer questions 24-25:
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) is an X-linked recessive disorder that
causes an individual’s muscles to degenerate over time. A male DMD patient has
two unaffected parents.
24. Fill in the pedigree of this family using Xd for the Duchenne allele, XD for the
“normal” allele, X? for any unknown X alleles , and Y for Y chromosomes.

25. It turns out the son with DMD also has Klinefelter syndrome. What
nondisjunction event would account for both disorders?
a. NDJ in Meiosis I of father
b. NDJ is Meiosis II of father
c. NDJ in Meiosis I of mother
d. NDJ is Meiosis II of mother
26. You’re a genetic counselor. A mother and father both with type AB blood
have a child with blood type O. A second type-O child was born six years later.
The father is upset and worried that, perhaps, he is not the biological father. After
extensive genotyping, you determine that he is most likely the father of both
children. This is an example of the “Bombay phenotype”. A separate locus codes
for a precursor to the A & B antigens (the H antigen). If the child is hh, no H
antigen is made and the child will be phenotypically type O. What is the name of
the genetic phenomenon that accounts for the Bombay phenotype?

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27. Achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant form of dwarfism. People with
achondroplasia are heterozygotes because carrying two copies of the dominant,
mutant allele is fatal during embryogenesis. Two people with achondroplasia
decide to start a family.
a. Fill out a Punnett square for this couple.

b. What is the probability that their first child born will be of average
stature?

c. What is the probability that this couple has two daughters with
achondroplasia and one son of average stature in that order?

d. What is the probability that this couple has two children with
achondroplasia and one of average stature in any order?
28. Two deaf people have three children together, none of whom are deaf. What
is the name for the genetic phenomenon that makes this possible?

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29. Individuals that inherit a single inactive retinoblastoma (Rb) allele from one of their
parents have a 90% chance of developing multiple eye tumors as a child. The allele can
be inherited from either the mother or father and affect both male and female children
equally.
a. Based on this information alone, what is the mode of inheritance?
b. As it turns out, the Rb gene encodes a type of protein called a tumor
suppressor. Children only get eye tumors when both Rb alleles make a nonfunctional
protein. Knowing this, do you think the mode of inheritance is different than what you
previously thought? How so?

30. What does it mean when two genes are “linked”?

31. As a human, you have 23 pairs of chromosome. For each pair, one chromosome was
maternally derived and the other was paternally derived. During meiosis, chromosome
pairs are segregated randomly into haploid cells so that the maternal and paternal
chromosome pairs are split up.
a. What is the probability that a human gamete has 20 of 23 maternally derived
chromosomes?

b. Which Mendelian principle is responsible for the number of maternally-derived
and paternally-derived chromosomes that end up in gametes?

c. What is the probability of having at least one maternally derived chromosome
in a gamete?

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METABOLISM
Pyruvate (pyruvic acid), the final product of glycolysis, has to enter the mitochondria to
participate in the Kreb’s cycle.
Which of the following statements about its entry is true and which is false? If false,
correct it so that it is true.
1. Pyruvate moves by facilitated diffusion that goes against the concentration
gradient.
2. Pyruvate is a lipid soluble molecule moving down its concentration gradient.
3. There must be transport molecules in the mitochondrial membrane.
4. The concentration of pyruvate is likely to be higher inside the mitochondrion
than outside.
5. During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill from food ? NADH ?
electron transport chain ? oxygen.
6. Prokaryotes don’t do glycolysis because they lack mitochondrial membranes.
7. Photosynthesis is to cellular respiration as _________.
a. exergonic is to endergonic.
b. amino acids are to carbohydrates.
c. increasing entropy is to decreasing entropy.
d. anabolic is to catabolic.
e. none of the above.
8. Rank the following compounds according to their oxidation state from LEAST
oxidized to MOST oxidized:
a. carbon dioxide, pyruvate, glucose
b. glucose, carbon dioxide, pyruvate
c. pyruvate, carbon dioxide, glucose,
d. pyruvate, glucose, carbon dioxide
e. glucose, pyruvate, carbon dioxide

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T / F 9.

The Krebs cycle yields NADH and FADH2 but not ATP or GTP.

T / F 10.

Every reaction in cellular respiration is spontaneous.

T / F 11.
One of the reasons that glycolysis is believed to be one of the most ancient of
metabolic processes is that glycolysis neither uses nor needs O2.
T / F 12.
Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells and in the
cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells.
T / F 13.
During aerobic respiration, energy is gently transferred from food molecules
to ATP molecules; during photosynthesis, light energy is used to generate ATP
molecules which are used to create food molecules.

For #14-18: An organism is discovered that consumes a considerable amount of
sugar, yet does not gain much weight when denied air. Curiously, the organism seems to
survive even in the absence of air, and the consumption of sugar increases as air is removed
from the organism's environment. When returned to normal air, the organism does fine.
Which of the following could describe the organism?
T / F 14.

It is a human cell.

T / F 15.

It may be used to produce ethanol.

T / F 16.

It is a facultative anaerobe.

T / F 17.

The organism obviously lacks the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain.

T / F 18.
It must use a molecule other than oxygen to accept electrons from the
electron transport chain.

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19. Draw a generic eukaryotic cell and a generic prokaryotic cell. Label where the
following take place:
glycolysis, fermentation, pyruvate processing, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain,
oxidative phosphorylation

20. Here is an abstract from an article by Rui-Hua, et al. Inhibition of glycolysis in
cancer cells: A novel strategy to overcome drug resistance associated with mitochondrial
respiratory defect and hypoxia. 2005 Cancer Research vol. 65, pp. 613-621.
Cancer cells generally exhibit increased glycolysis for ATP generation (the Warburg
effect) due in part to mitochondrial respiration injury and hypoxia, which are frequently
associated with resistance to therapeutic agents. Here, we report that inhibition of
glycolysis severely depletes ATP in cancer cells, especially in clones of cancer cells with
mitochondrial respiration defects, and leads to rapid dephosphorylation of the glycolysisapoptosis integrating molecule BAD at Ser112, relocalization of BAX to mitochondria,
and massive cell death. Importantly, inhibition of glycolysis effectively kills colon cancer
cells and lymphoma cells in a hypoxic environment in which the cancer cells exhibit high
glycolytic activity and decreased sensitivity to common anticancer agents. Depletion of
ATP by glycolytic inhibition also potently induced apoptosis in multidrug-resistant cells,
suggesting that deprivation of cellular energy supply may be an effective way to
overcome multidrug resistance. Our study shows a promising therapeutic strategy to
effectively kill cancer cells and overcome drug resistance. Because the Warburg effect
and hypoxia are frequently seen in human cancers, these findings may have broad clinical
implications.
A. How can cells generate ATP in the absence of functioning mitochondria?

B. How much ATP can be generated in the absence of mitochondria?

C. What would happen to the pH in cancer cells due to this metabolism?

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