Can someone answer these questions, there are 518 but I only need 100-518 answered.
Attachment Preview:
Unit3 MCQB

This is an unformatted preview. Please download the attached document for the original format.
Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB

Dr. Fickbohm

1

Required Format for REVIEW of Your Answers to the MCQB:
? Use proper etiquette in your messages to request that I review your answers.
? Include a greeting and salutation (e.g., Dear Dr. Fickbohm), a request that I review your
answers, a thank you, a closing (e.g., Sincerely), and a signature (Your Name)

o

Use your student SMC e-mail account!
Limit your answers to no more than 15 per e-mail, one answer per line.
? No blank lines between answer lines.
You may send multiple e-mails.

o

You may submit new choices for answers that I indicate were not the best.

o
o

?

?

Use this answer format: Question #, letter of best choice (capitalized), relevant pg. # from the 7th
edition Martini text or the e-Text, as such:
o 1, A, 12
o 2, C, 11
o 3, A, 13
If your answers are in the proper answer format, I will reply and indicate that all of your answers are
correct or list the answers that are not the best.
o

If your answers are not in the proper answer format, I will not review them.

Deadline for submission of answers for questions 1-329 is 5-08.
Deadline for submission of answers for questions 330-518 is 5-17.
7)

1)

Communication between the CNS, PNS, and peripheral organs and systems
involves__________ in the CNS that relay sensory or motor information.
a) ganglia
b) nerves
c) tracts
d) A and B
e) B and C

2)

Each _________ (motor) or __________ (sensory) tract consists of a chain of 8)
neurons and associated nuclei.
a) ascending; afferent
b) ascending; descending
c) descending; ascending
d) efferent; afferent
e) none of the above are correct.
9)
Sensory tracts that deliver somatic sensory information to the sensory cortex
of the cerebral or cerebellar hemispheres include
a) first-order neurons
b) second-order neurons
c) third-order neurons
d) sensory neurons
e) All of the above
10)
A first-order neuron is
a) a neuron that extends down the spinal cord.
b) one that projects the motor homunculus to the parietal lobe of the
cerebellum.
c) the sensory neuron that brings information from the receptor to the CNS.
d) the first neuron in any pathway.
e) none of the above.
11)
A neuron that ascends the spinal cord or brain stem and usually ends in the
thalamus is a(n)
a) second-order neuron.
b) upper motor neuron.
c) first-order neuron.
d) lower motor neuron.
e) third-order neuron.

3)

4)

5)

6)

In most cases, axons in sensory tracts cross over or ________ as they ascend
to the cerebral cortex.
a) decussate
b) decorate
c) deliberate
d) diminish
e) none of the above are correct.
Select the correct association.
a) efferent ? sensory
b) afferent ? motor
c) afferent ? sensory
d) efferent ? unipolar
e) None of the above are associated.
Axons within each sensory tract are grouped according to the type of
information, or _________, they deal with.
a) sensory modality
b) sensory definition
c) sensory modulation
d) A and B
e) B and C
_________ within each tract are grouped according to the body region they
innervate.
a) myelin
b) axons
c) connective tissue
d) dendrites
e) cell bodies
Most sensory neurons that enter the spinal cord at inferior levels travel more
________within a sensory tract than nerves entering the spinal cord at a more
superior level.
a) laterally
b) superficially
c) deeply
d) medially
e) superiorly

Neurons extending from the thalamus, through the internal capsule, and to the 12) All of the following are true of pathways except
a) no processing occurs along motor pathways; decisions are made only in
somatosensory cortex are
the brain.
a) third-order neurons.
b) there are several successive levels of processing of sensory and motor
b) first-order neurons.
pathways.
c) second-order neurons.
c) they relay sensory and motor information between the PNS and the
d) pyramidal cells.
brain.
e) none of the above.
d) they consist of a chain of tracts and associated nuclei.

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are true.
13) The ability of the body to receive a stimulus and register a change is called
a) a preprogrammed response.
b) perception.
c) feedback.
d) sensation.
e) thinking.
14) Information arriving at the sensory cortex is organized so we can determine
the source and nature of the _________ with great precision.
a) action potentials
b) stimulus
c) nerve impulses
d) depolarizations
e) sensation

Dr. Fickbohm

2

23) The spinothalamic tract is
a) motor.
b) descending.
c) ascending.
d) efferent.
e) transverse.
24) We can distinguish between sensations that originate in different areas of the
body because
a) sensory neurons carry only one type of information.
b) different sensory receptor types produce different action potential types.
c) sensory neurons from each body region synapse in specific brain
regions.
d) incoming sensory information is first assessed by the thalamus.
e) None of the above explains how we distinguish sensations.

25) The sensory homunculus is a map that correlates with (the)
15) Only about _____% of afferent fiber activity reaches the cerebral cortex and
a) number of muscles under the skin.
conscious awareness.
b) relative size of sensory regions in the body.
a) 10
c) number of sensory units in regions of the body.
b) 0.1
d) size of sensory units.
c) 1
e) all of the above.
d) 100
e) none of the above
26) A sensory homunculus
a) is a functional map of the primary sensory cortex.
16) Axons of sensory neurons enter the spinal cord through the
b) is proportioned the same as the areas of the body represented.
a) dorsal root.
c) is the site that determines the intensity of a pain stimulus.
b) midbrain and hypothalamus.
d) is the location of referred pain.
c) posterior gray horn.
e) is none of the above.
d) ventral root.
e) anterior gray horn.
27) Motor commands are distributed by the
a) somatic nervous system.
17) Sensory tracts are present __________ in the spinal cord.
b) spinocerebellar tracts.
a) unilaterally
c) autonomic nervous system.
b) bilaterally
d) A and B
c) on one side only
e) A and C
d) on both sides
28) The spinal tracts that regulate voluntary motor commands to skeletal muscles
e) B and D
on the opposite side of the body are the
18) The major somatic sensory tracts are the
a) spinothalamic tracts.
a) posterior columns.
b) rubrospinal tracts.
b) spinothalamic tracts.
c) corticospinal tracts.
c) spinocerebellar tracts
d) reticulospinal tracts.
d) all of the above.
e) vestibulospinal tracts.
e) none of the above.
29) In a somatic motor pathway, the neuron that has a cell body in a CNS
19) The major somatosensory pathways do not include (the)
processing center is (the)
a) spinothalamic pathway.
a) postganglionic neuron.
b) posterior column pathway.
b) lower motor neuron.
c) spinocerebellar pathway.
c) upper motor neuron.
d) corticocerebral pathway.
d) preganglionic neuron.
e) any exceptions; all of the above are included.
e) none of the above.
20) Of the principal ascending tracts in the spinal cord, which carries information 30) In a somatic motor pathway, a lower motor neuron
that has a final destination that is not the cerebral cortex?
a) may have its axon in the ventral root of a spinal nerve
a) the posterior columns
b) innervates one or more skeletal muscle cells
b) the spinothalamic tract
c) controls muscle cells on the opposite side of the body
c) the spinocerebellar tracts
d) A and B
d) the corticospinal tract
e) A, B and C
e) none of the above are correct
31) The motor pathways of the autonomic nervous system
21) The fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus are
a) contain both upper and lower motor neurons.
a) sensory pathways
b) control visceral effectors, such as smooth and cardiac muscle and
b) motor pathways
glands.
c) tracts in the posterior columns
c) include only neurons located in the brain or spinal cord.
d) A and C
d) show a neuronal organization like that of the somatic nervous system.
e) A, B and C
e) do all of the above.
22) Sensations not detected by the receptors for the posterior column pathway
include
a) pressure.
b) temperature.
c) vibration.
d) proprioception.
e) A and C.

32) ANS motor pathways
a) involve at least two neurons.
b) involve a preganglionic neuron.
c) involve a neuron in a peripheral ganglion.
d) A and B
e) A, B and C
33) The _______ tracts are involved in conscious control of skeletal muscles.

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
a) vestibulospinal
b) tectospinal
c) corticobulbar
d) reticulospinal
e) rubrospinal

34)

35)

36)

37)

38)

39)

40)

41)

42)

Dr. Fickbohm
d) An upper motor neuron has been damaged.
e) None of the above has occurred.

43) Where would you expect to find CNS damage in a person who displays
inability to control eye movements, facial expressions, tongue position, and
some of the superficial neck and upper back muscles?
The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body
a) vestibulospinal tracts
is relative to
b) corticospinal tracts
a) the number of sensory receptors in the body region.
c) corticobulbar tracts
b) the size of the nerve to that body region.
d) rubrospinal tracts
c) the size of the body region.
e) none of the above
d) the number of motor units in the area of the body.
e) all of the above.
44) The brain
a) is made up of five major divisions.
The corticospinal tracts can be defined as
b) contains approximately 20 billion neurons.
a) the control system for involuntary muscles.
c) is less complex than the spinal cord.
b) a voluntary motor pathway.
d) is just like a computer.
c) a series of ascending tracts.
e) none of the above
d) a tract that ends at the substantia nigra.
e) none of the above.
45) Which organ contains 98 percent of the neurons in the body?
a) spinal cord
Which descending tracts terminate at the motor nuclei of cranial nerves
b) nerves
controlling eye movements, facial muscles, tongue muscles, and superficial
c) brain
muscles of the neck and back?
d) thalamus
a) lateral corticospinal
e) none of the above
b) posterior column
c) corticobulbar
46) All of the following statements about the brain are true except
d) spinothalamic
a) it has the greatest number of neuronal pools in the nervous system.
e) corticospinal
b) its neuronal pools are united by extremely complex interconnections.
c) it is less complex as the spinal cord.
Which nuclei or centers are correctly paired with the tracts to which they
d) it is more versatile than the spinal cord.
provide output?
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are true.
a) vestibular nuclei ? vestibulospinal tracts
b) reticular formation ? reticulospinal tracts
47) One neuron in the brain may process information from
c) red nuclei ? rubrospinal tracts
a) only one other neuron
d) tectum ? tectospinal tracts
b) all the other neurons of the brain over time
e) all of the above
c) two or more neurons at a time
d) up to 200,000 neurons at the same time
One of the main reasons damage to the lateral corticospinal tract on the left
e) none of the above
side of the body does not completely cause loss of conscious control of the left
side of the body is that
48) Interactions among interconnected neuronal pools may
a) 15 percent of the voluntary control from the corticospinal tracts is
a) provide immediate responses to sensory inputs
uncrossed in the anterior corticospinal tract.
b) involve software versions not yet available in games
b) the corticobulbar pathway contibutes to the entire body.
c) result in loss of adaptability
c) the medial pathways also control voluntary movement.
d) be inhibitory or excitatory
d) the extrapyramidal tracts help with conscious control.
e) none of the above
e) all of the above are true.
49) In the development of the central nervous system,
An upper motor neuron supplying the lateral rectus muscle of the eye would
a) the brain grows in size and complexity until the age of four years.
be part of the __________ tract.
b) cortical neurons continually establish new interconnections.
a) corticobulbar
c) myelination of CNS axons continues at least until age 1-2.
b) anterior corticospinal
d) cortical neurons increase in number until at least the age of one year.
c) lateral corticospinal
e) all of the above happen.
d) cerebellar
e) none of the above
50) The cerebral hemispheres are separated by (the)
a) coronal fissure.
Normally, output from the basal nuclei
b) central sulcus.
a) increases the stimulation of the primary motor cortex.
c) longitudinal fissure.
b) inhibits the upper motor neurons.
d) lateral ventricles.
c) travels down the spinal cord to control the lower motor neurons.
e) none of the above.
d) controls only the cerebellum.
e) does both B and D.
51) Conscious thought processes and all intellectual functions originate in (the)
a) medulla oblongata.
When a person displays a "startle response," i.e., blinking and/or flinching at
b) corpus callosum.
bright lights or loud noises, what neurological region is responsible?
c) cerebellum.
a) rubrospinal tracts
d) cerebrum.
b) cerebral nuclei
e) none of the above.
c) reticulospinal tracts
d) tectospinal tracts
52) Abstract intellectual functions are performed in (the)
e) vestibular nuclei
a) general interpretive area.
b) Broca's area.
When an athlete suffers an injury that results in symptoms of flaccid paralysis
c) parietal lobe.
of a portion of a muscle, what type of nerve damage has likely occurred?
d) prefrontal cortex.
a) No nerve has been damaged; only muscle fibers have been injured.
e) premotor area.
b) A lower motor neuron has been damaged.
c) There is a CNS injury, but no injury to the muscle.
53) A cerebrovascular accident occurs when

3

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
a) the blood supply to a portion of the brain is cut off.
b) a descending tract in the spinal cord is severed.
c) the prefrontal area is damaged.
d) the reticular activating system fails to function.
e) None of the above describe a cerebrovascular accident.
54) When the blood supply to a portion of the brain is cut off, the resulting
damage is called
a) amnesia.
b) cerebral palsy.
c) a cerebrovascular accident.
d) a stroke.
e) both C and D.
55) Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect
a) the ability to hear.
b) voluntary motor control.
c) the ability to see.
d) the ability to taste.
e) perception of pain.
56) Together the midbrain, pons, and medulla are called the
a) gray matter.
b) diencephalon.
c) rhombencephalon.
d) brain stem.
e) cerebellum.
57) Which of the following is true of the dura mater?
a) It contains the subarachnoid spaces.
b) It consists of three layers around the brain only.
c) It follows precisely and adheres closely to the contours of the brain
tissue.
d) The outer (endosteal) layer is fused to the periosteum of the cranial
bones.
e) None of the above are true.
58)

59)

60)

61)

62)

63)

Dr. Fickbohm

4

c) occur along the inferior sagittal sinus.
d) line the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.
e) have none of the above attributes.
64) Blood and cerebrospinal fluid drain from the brain in (the)
a) ventricles.
b) subarachnoid space.
c) dural sinuses.
d) epidural space.
e) none of the above.
65) After flowing through the dural sinuses, CSF and blood flow into (the)
a) internal jugular vein.
b) external jugular vein.
c) carotid artery.
d) subdural space.
e) none of the above.
66) The medial partition between the lateral ventricles is (the)
a) intermediate mass.
b) septum pellucidum.
c) arachnoid villi.
d) diaphragma sellae.
e) none of the above.
67) The primary purpose of the blood-brain barrier is to
a) drain blood from the brain.
b) hook areas of the brain together.
c) provide the brain with oxygen.
d) isolate the CNS from general circulation.
e) do none of the above.

68) Structurally, the blood-brain barrier exists because
a) the hypothalamus regulates the permeability of the blood vessels.
b) the endothelial cells lining the CNS are extensively interconnected by
tight junctions.
c) only water-soluble compounds are permitted to enter by passive
The extensions of the dura mater that stabilize and support the brain are (the)
diffusion.
a) falx cerebelli.
d) normal blood flow is at a pressure too high for the delicate brain tissue.
b) falx cerebri.
e) None of the above explains the existence of the blood-brain barrier.
c) tentorium cerebri.
d) A and B
69) Compounds that diffuse passively across the blood-brain barrier
e) B and C.
a) can only enter the brain, not leave it.
b) do so in inverse relationship to their presence in the bloodstream.
The choroid plexus
c) are lipid soluble.
a) is the site of drainage of used cerebrospinal fluid from neural tissues.
d) are water soluble.
b) is the site of production of the cerebrospinal fluid.
e) do all of the above.
c) is the site where the spinal nerves first enter the medulla.
d) is located on the entire surface area of the brain-ventricle interface.
70) Functions of the medulla include all of the following except
e) is none of the above.
a) controlling autonomic reflexes.
b) acting as a relay station to transmit impulses to and from the brain.
The substance that surrounds the brain and is very similar to blood plasma
c) controlling the expression of emotions.
minus proteins is
d) controlling motor responses to some of the cranial nuclei.
a) choroid.
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are functions of the medulla.
b) arachnoid granulations.
c) subarachnoid fluid.
71) Within the medulla oblongata, heart rate and force of contraction are regulated
d) cerebrospinal fluid.
in the
e) none of the above.
a) ascending tracts of white matter.
b) cardiac centers.
The CSF produced by the choroid plexus of the brain circulates through the
c) decussation of the pyramids.
a) central canal of the spinal cord.
d) olivary nuclei.
b) ventricles of the brain.
e) nucleus cuneatus.
c) cervical, brachial, and lumbosacral plexuses.
d) dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves.
72) Components of the medulla oblongata do not include which of the following?
e) A and B.
a) mamillary body
b) nucleus cuneatus
The CSF flows around all but which of the following structures?
c) olivary nucleus
a) cauda equina
d) nucleus gracilis
b) sella turcica
e) vasomotor center
c) brain
d) spinal cord
73) Which of the following is not a function of the medulla oblongata?
e) no exceptions; CSF flows around all of the above
a) relay somatic sensory information to the thalamus
b) set pace of respiratory movements
c) coordinate voluntary body movements
Arachnoid granulations
d) regulate heart rate
a) are projections of the dura mater into the arachnoid.
b) absorb CSF into the venous circulation.
e) link brain and spinal cord

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
74) Physical connections of the medulla include
a) ascending tracts, but not descending tracts, from the brain.
b) all fibers connecting the brain to the spinal cord.
c) direct links between the spinal cord and cerebral hemispheres.
d) descending tracts, but not ascending tracts, to the brain.
e) both B and C

Dr. Fickbohm

5

84) All of the following are true of the hypothalamus except
a) it extends from the area superior to the optic chiasm to the mamillary
bodies.
b) the floor is connected to the pituitary gland by the infundibulum.
c) it contains the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei.
d) it contains the tuberal area.
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are true.

75) If damaged or diseased, which part of the brain would make a person unable 85) The hypothalamus receives information directly from all of the following
to control and regulate the rate of respiratory movements?
except the
a) the respiratory rhythmicity center of the medulla
a) dorsal root ganglia.
b) the cerebral peduncles of the mesencephalon
b) spinal cord.
c) the vasomotor center of the medulla
c) cerebrum.
d) the cardiovascular center of the pons
d) brain stem.
e) the olivary nucleus of the medulla oblongata
e) All of the above provide information directly to the hypothalamus.
76) The pons contains a(n) _________ center and a _________ center that modify 86) Antidiuretic hormone from the hypothalamus
activity of the respiratory rhythmicity center in the medulla oblongata.
a) is secreted from the preoptic area.
a) apneustic; pneumotaxic
b) coordinates the autonomic activities that regulate heart rate, blood
b) cerebellar; peduncle
pressure, and respiration.
c) sensory; motor
c) is secreted from the supraoptic nucleus and restricts water loss at the
d) A and B
kidneys.
e) A, B and C
d) targets the hypothalamus itself, stimulating the thirst center.
e) has none of the above attributes.
77) The white matter of the pons contains ascending and descending tracts and
_________.
87) A person who has a very difficult time in controlling the amount of food that
a) fibers that permit communication between cerebellar hemispheres
he or she eats might have which of the following problems in the brain?
b) transverse fibers (tracts)
a) a lesion in the frontal lobes of the cerebrum
c) longitudinal tracts
b) a lesion in the hypothalamus
d) A and B
c) a tumor in the thalamus
e) A, B and C
d) damage to the corpus callosum
e) damage to the pons
78) In the mesencephalon, integrating visual information with other sensory inputs
and initiating involuntary motor responses are functions of the
88) The _________ controls a variety of autonomic functions.
a) medulla oblongata
a) red nucleus.
b) cerebral cortex
b) cerebral peduncles.
c) hypothalamus
c) substantia nigra.
d) superior colliculi.
d) spinal cord
e) A and B.
e) thalamus
79) The major function of the superior colliculi includes reflexes involved with
a) the nose.
b) the eyes.
c) the taste buds.
d) the ears.
e) none of the above.

89) Another name for the pituitary gland is the
a) pineal gland.
b) hypophysis.
c) diencephalon.
d) medulla.
e) hypothalamus.

80) Regulating motor output associated with muscle tone is the function of which 90) The motor actions of the tongue and swallowing are controlled by the
mesencephalic center?
a) cerebral nuclei.
a) cerebral peduncles
b) mamillary bodies.
b) red nucleus
c) thalamus.
c) inferior colliculi
d) pons.
d) amygdaloid body
e) fornix.
e) substantia nigra
91) The suprachiasmatic nucleus
81) The thalamus
a) regulates the pineal gland.
a) contains centers that are involved with emotions and visceral processes.
b) coordinates daily cycles.
b) performs many voluntary functions.
c) receives input directly from the retina.
c) forms the walls of the diencephalon around the third ventricle.
d) outputs to the hypothalamic nuclei.
d) is the initial processing center for most motor output to the spinal cord.
e) does all of the above.
e) has none of the above attributes.
92) Cerebellar functions include all of the following except
82) Thalamic nuclei function to
a) coordinating rapid, automatic adjustments in the postural muscles of the
a) pass motor information to the descending tracts and to the spinal cord.
body.
b) relay information to the mamillary bodies.
b) coordinating nervous and endocrine responses to various stimuli.
c) relay sensory information to the cerebral nuclei and cerebral cortex.
c) sending motor commands to nuclei within the cerebrum and brain stem.
d) relay information to the occipital lobes.
d) acting in part as a relay center for sensory information from the spinal
e) do none of the above.
cord to the brain.
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are cerebellar functions.
83) Axons in the optic tract synapse in the
a) infundibulum.
93) The cerebellar cortex contains neurons that
b) ventral posterior nucleus.
a) help control ongoing movements of body parts
b) are arranged in folds called folia
c) lateral geniculate nucleus.
d) medial geniculate nucleus.
c) are called Purkinje cells
e) pulvinar nucleus.
d) A and B
e) A, B and C

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
94) The cerebellar white matter does not
a) contain fibers that carry afferent information to Purkinje cells
b) connect the cerebellar cortex with cerebellar nuclei
c) carry efferent fibers to somatic motor neurons
d) form a branching array, known as the arbor vitae
e) all of the above are true
95) Dysfunction of which neurological components causes a person who has
imbibed too much alcohol to stagger when attempting to walk?
a) cerebellar nuclei
b) parietal lobes
c) tectospinal tracts
d) rubrospinal tracts
e) all of the above
96) The largest region of the brain is (the)
a) cerebrum.
b) diencephalon.
c) cerebellum.
d) brain stem.
e) none of the above.
97) The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain is (the)
a) lateral sulcus.
b) longitudinal fissure.
c) parieto-occipital sulcus.
d) central sulcus.
e) none of the above.
98) Which of the following is not an attribute or function of the cerebrum?
a) the largest region of the brain
b) conducts all conscious thought and intellectual processes
c) processes visceral sensory and autonomic motor information
d) processes somatic sensory and motor information
e) no exceptions; all of the above are cerebral attributes
99) The cortical surface of the cerebral hemispheres forms a series of elevated
ridges called
a) gyri.
b) lobes.
c) nuclei.
d) sulci.
e) none of the above.
100) The central sulcus separates which regions of the cerebrum?
a) the parietal and occipital lobes
b) the pyramidal cells and the frontal lobes
c) the temporal and insular lobes
d) the sensory and motor areas
e) none of the above
101) The largest cerebral lobe is the __________ lobe.
a) insular
b) parietal
c) occipital
d) temporal
e) frontal
102) The parietal lobe is primarily used for
a) motor functions.
b) perception of visual stimuli.
c) perception of auditory stimuli.
d) sensory functions.
e) none of the above.
103) The visual cortex is located in the __________ lobe.
a) insular
b) occipital
c) temporal
d) parietal
e) frontal
104) The total surface area of the cerebral hemispheres is approximately
a) 2200 ft2
b) 2.5 ft2

Dr. Fickbohm

6

c) 2.5 cm
d) 2200 cm
e) 2.5 ft
105) The somatic motor association area, also called the premotor cortex, is
responsible for
a) involuntary motor skills.
b) subconscious, voluntary activity.
c) voluntary skeletal activity.
d) patterned, learned activity.
e) none of the above.
106) Which unique function of the brain occurs in the postcentral gyrus?
a) returns cerebrospinal fluid into the circulatory system
b) receives primary sensory information of touch, pressure, pain, taste, and
temperature
c) provides visceral motor responses, serving as center of the autonomic
nervous system
d) provides voluntary motor control to the skeletal muscles
e) none of the above
107) The anterior portion of the insula is responsible for
a) speech.
b) smell.
c) taste.
d) sight.
e) none of the above.
108) The general interpretive area is also known as
a) the gnostic area.
b) Wernicke's area.
c) Broca's area.
d) the prefrontal area.
e) more than one of the above.
109) Damage to which region of the cerebral cortex would impair a person's ability
to regulate the patterns of breathing required for speech?
a) the primary motor cortex
b) Broca's area (speech center)
c) the postcentral gyrus
d) the general interpretive area
e) none of the above
110) The speech center
a) lies along the primary sensory cortex.
b) coordinates information from the secondary and special association
areas of the entire cortex.
c) usually occurs in the same hemisphere as the general interpretive area.
d) regulates the pattern of the understanding of words.
e) does all of the above.
111) What region of the brain might be damaged if a person is unable to interpret
associated words or commands even though individual words can be
comprehended?
a) the general interpretive area
b) the speech center
c) the prefrontal cortex
d) the frontal lobes
e) Damage to any of the above might cause the problem described.
112) Scanning data, electrical monitoring, and clinical observations have shown
that several cortical areas act as higher order integrative centers
a) that function more efficiently after a frontal lobotomy.
b) for complex sensory stimuli and motor responses.
c) in the frontal lobes of the cerebrum.
d) in the left cerebral hemisphere in all individuals.
e) in none of the above instances.
113) The primary motor area is part of (the)
a) parietal lobe.
b) occipital lobe.
c) reticular formation.
d) frontal lobe.
e) none of the above.
114) Identification of familiar objects by touch, smell, taste, or feel occurs in

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
a) the right cerebral hemisphere.
b) the left hemisphere in about 78 percent of the population.
c) the left cerebral hemisphere.
d) both cerebral hemispheres.
e) neither cerebral hemisphere.

Dr. Fickbohm

7

d) A and B
e) A, B and C
124) Projection fibers connect the cerebral cortex with
a) cortical areas in one gyrus with another.
b) cortical areas in the same lobe.
c) the diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum and spinal cord.
d) A and B
e) A, B and C

115) Regarding the location of the categorical (dominant) and representational
(nondominant) hemispheres in the brain,
a) right-handed people always have the same pattern of hemispheric
specialization.
b) the right hemisphere often controls complex motor patterns in artists and 125) The hippocampus
a) functions to control mood.
musicians.
b) is a tract of white matter that connects the fornix to the cingulate gyrus.
c) there may be a link between handedness and sensory and spatial
c) lies in proximity to the parahippocampal gyrus.
abilities.
d) lies in the lateral wall of the lateral ventricle.
d) some individuals have no hemispheric specialization.
e) has the attributes of B and D.
e) both B and C are true.
116) Crossover of information between cerebral hemispheres mainly occurs
through the
a) handedness of the individual.
b) corpus callosum.
c) internal capsule.
d) fornix.
e) B and C.

126) The tracts that lead from the amygdaloid body to the hypothalamus
a) are of unknown function.
b) may assist in memory consolidation.
c) may link memories to specific emotions.
d) may regulate changes in emotional state.
e) have none of the above atttributes.

117) What is the name of white matter fibers that connect adjacent gyri?
a) longitudinal fasciculi fibers
b) commissural fibers
c) association fibers
d) projection fibers
e) arcuate fibers

127) The limbic system
a) maintains consciousness.
b) establishes emotional states and related behavioral drives.
c) includes nuclei and tracts along the border between the diencephalon
and metencephalon.
d) induces an individual to go to sleep.
e) does none of the above.

118) Deep gray matter of the cerebrum is called
a) fissures.
b) the cerebral cortex.
c) cerebral nuclei.
d) projection fibers.
e) none of the above.

128) The limbic system includes all of the following except the
a) globus pallidus.
b) amygdaloid body.
c) dentate gyrus.
d) cingulate gyrus.
e) hippocampus.

119) The caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus are anatomically separated by 129) The fornix
(the)
a) connects the parahippocampal gyrus with the thalamus.
a) fornix.
b) is present in only one cerebral hemisphere, typically the left.
b) corpus callosum.
c) contains many fibers that end in the caudate nucleus.
c) longitudinal fissure.
d) links the hippocampus with the hypothalamus.
d) internal capsule.
e) is an integral part of the reticular formation.
e) all of the above.
130) What is the connecting tract between the hippocampus and the hypothalamus?
120) Which cerebral nucleus is most lateral and lies immediately adjacent to the
a) corpus callosum
insula?
b) reticular formation
a) amygdala
c) brain stem
b) globus pallidus
d) fornix
c) caudate nucleus
e) both A and B
d) putamen
e) claustrum
131) Where is the headquarters of the reticular formation located?
a) myelencephalon
121) Which area of the basal nuclei is responsible for controlling appendicular
b) diencephalon
muscle tone?
c) telencephalon
a) globus pallidus
d) metencephalon
b) claustrum
e) mesencephalon
c) amygdaloid body
d) thalamus and hypothalamus
132) Which of the following is true of the reticular activating system?
e) caudate nucleus
a) Its output projects throughout the cerebral cortex.
b) Its level of activity is inversely related to a person's alertness.
122) Which of the following is not part of the basal nuclei?
c) It is always active, even when the cerebral cortex is inactive.
a) caudate nucleus
d) It is a discrete network of neural tissue.
b) claustrum
e) Both C and D are true.
c) internal capsule
d) globus pallidus
133) The state of consciousness of an individual is determined by
e) putamen
a) the level of activity in which the individual is engaged.
b) the number of external stimuli bombarding the individual's sense organs.
123) The central white matter of the cerebrum contains
c) whether or not the individual is interested in external events.
a) association fibers that interconnect cerebral cortex areas within the same
d) complex interactions between the brain stem and cerebral cortex.
hemisphere.
e) the individual's emotional state.
b) arcuate fibers that interconnect gyri within a lobe.
c) commissural fibers that interconnect the frontal lobe with other areas in 134) The normal states of consciousness of an individual
a) remain constant.
the same hemisphere.

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
b) include delirium and dementia.
c) include the state of stupor.
d) cycle between alert and asleep each day.
e) do none of the above.
135) A conscious but unresponsive state with no evidence of cortical function is
a) stupor.
b) chronic vegetative state.
c) somnolence.
d) dementia.
e) none of the above.
136) What circumstances occurring during the birth process could cause cerebral
palsy?
a) Caesarian section
b) normal delivery of a full-term infant
c) decreased oxygen levels to the brain for more than five to ten minutes
d) birth after a longer than normal gestation period
e) No known factors cause or contribute to this problem.

Dr. Fickbohm

8

b) interconnecting with other CNS regions.
c) conducting activities of cranial nerves V and VIII.
d) interconnecting cerebellar hemispheres.
e) modifying respiratory center output.
145) The sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles are innervated by which
cranial nerve?
a) IX
b) XI
c) X
d) VII
e) XII
146) Cranial nerves that have autonomic components include
a) I, II, III.
b) VIII, XI, XII.
c) III, VII, IX, X.
d) IV, V, VI, VII.
e) none of the above combinations.

137) The activities of the nervous system, comprised of conscious thoughts, plans, 147) In which ways does the olfactory nerve (N I) differ from the other cranial
and actions,
nerves?
a) may require instructions or modifications from the ANS to function
a) It contains somatic motor as well as autonomic components.
correctly.
b) It is made up of many small, slender fibers that pass through openings in
b) represent only a small portion of the activities of the nervous system.
the skull.
c) include the majority of nervous activity.
c) The olfactory tract is actually a part of the cerebrum, and not truly a
d) regulate all vital physiological functions.
nerve.
e) do both A and B.
d) Both B and C describe ways the olfactory nerve differs from other
cranial nerves.
138) The brain region that you would suspect to be damaged in a person who
e) It does not differ from the other cranial nerves in any significant way.
displayed violent or antisocial behavior would be the
a) cerebellum.
148) Which of the following apply to the cranial nerves?
b) premotor cortex.
a) They all connect directly to peripheral receptors or effectors.
c) primary sensory cortex.
b) They are components of the PNS that connect to the brain.
d) auditory association area.
c) They are motor only, from the brain to peripheral effectors.
e) prefrontal cortex.
d) They are all mixed nerves, with both sensory and motor functions.
e) None of the above apply to the cranial nerves.
139) The olfactory nerves enter the cranium through the
a) optic foramen.
149) All of the following are true of the optic nerve except
a) each optic nerve consists of about one million fibers.
b) olfactory bulbs.
b) it carries visual information from specialized sensory ganglia in the eyes
c) cribriform plate.
to the brain.
d) olfactory canal.
c) approximately half of the nerve fibers cross at the optic chiasm.
e) nasal conchae.
d) the optic tracts after the chiasm pass directly to the cerebral peduncles.
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are true.
140) The primary motor cortex is connected with motor neurons in the brain stem
and spinal cord, and ascending sensory information is carried to the thalamus
150) The trigeminal nerve
by (the)
a) transmits motor information only through its ophthalmic and maxillary
a) inferior colliculi.
branches.
b) cerebral peduncles.
b) provides sensory information only from the mandibular region.
c) red nucleus.
c) has motor neurons that originate on the pons.
d) tectum.
d) is the smallest of the cranial nerves.
e) none of the above.
e) does none of the above.
141) Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI all exit the cranium through (the)
151) Which cranial nerves are responsible for eye function and movement?
a) inferior orbital fissure.
a) V, VII, VIII
b) internal acoustic meatus.
b) II, III, IV, VI
c) superior orbital fissure.
c) I, II, VII
d) optic canal.
d) IX, XI, XII
e) none of the above.
e) none of the above combinations.
142) Which is the only cranial nerve to leave the head and neck region?
152) Which cranial nerves have their nuclei housed in the pons?
a) V
a) IV, V, VI, VII
b) X
b) V, VII, VIII, IX
c) XII
c) V, VI, VII, VIII
d) VII
d) VII, VIII, IX
e) all of the above
e) IV, V, VII
143) Which of the following is not a branch of the facial nerve?
153) Which cranial nerve is associated with balance?
a) buccal
a) VI
b) temporal
b) IX
c) ophthalmic
c) XI
d) zygomatic
d) XII
e) cervical
e) VIII
144) Functions of the pons include all of the following except
a) housing nuclei for cranial nerves VI, VII, and IX.

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB

Dr. Fickbohm

9

154) If the trochlear nerve of the right eye were damaged, which movement would 164) Preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system that carry motor
the person be unable to make?
impulses to targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity synapse in a(n)
a) rolling the eye upward and to the left (medially)
a) celiac ganglion.
b) rolling the eye straight to the left (medially)
b) intramural ganglion.
c) rolling the eye down and to the right (laterally)
c) paravertebral ganglion.
d) looking straight upward
d) collateral ganglion.
e) looking straight downward
e) adrenal ganglion.
155) Swelling of the jugular vein as it leaves the skull could compress which of the 165)
following cranial nerves?
a) V, VII
b) VIII, IX, XII
c) IX, X, XI
d) I, IV, V
e) II, IV, VI
166)
156) Damage to which cranial nerve(s) would most render you unable to blink?
a) VIII, IX
b) V, VII
c) II
d) I
e) III
167)
157) Damage to which cranial nerve(s) would block a person's ability to taste?
a) VII
b) VII, IX, X
c) IX, X, XI
d) IX
e) XII

Norepinephrine released from the sympathetic fibers is usually
a) reverberating.
b) excitatory.
c) inhibitory.
d) long lasting.
e) none of the above.
The sympathetic division of the ANS generally
a) prepares the body to deal with emergencies.
b) is called the "fight or flight" division.
c) stimulates tissue metabolism.
d) increases alertness.
e) is or does all of the above.
The parasympathetic division of the ANS generally does all of the following
except
a) promotes sedentary activities.
b) increases respiratory movements needed for digestion.
c) functions as the "rest and repose" division.
d) conserves energy.
e) there no exceptions; all of the above are parasympathetic functions.

158) The autonomic division of the nervous system directs
a) voluntary activity.
b) processes that maintain homeostasis.
c) conscious control of skeletal muscles.
d) behavior.
e) emotions.

168) A fiber passing through a gray ramus is most likely to be
a) unmyelinated.
b) carrying an action potential that will cause NE release.
c) heading toward the body wall.
d) sympathetic.
e) all of the above.

159) The major divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) include
a) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
b) the conscious and unconscious nervous systems.
c) the voluntary and involuntary divisions.
d) pre- and postganglionic fibers.
e) none of the above.

169) The most widely used neurotransmitter in the ANS is
a) epinephrine.
b) ACh.
c) NE.
d) GABA.
e) all of the above.

160) The “third” division of the ANS is the __________ nervous system (ENS).
a) entrance
b) entertaining
c) entire
d) enteric
e) none of the above

170) Which of the following may be released by cells of the sympathetic division?
a) norepinephrine
b) epinephrine
c) ACh
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

161) In the ANS, visceral motor neurons with cell bodies within the CNS send their 171) Tissue responses to neurotransmitters
a) are always excitatory.
axons, known as ________, to synapse on ganglionic neurons in autonomic
b) may be excitatory or inhibitory.
ganglia.
c) are always inhibitory.
a) intramural fibers
d) depend upon the response of the membrane receptor to the presence of
b) skeletal muscle fibers
the neurotransmitter.
c) preganglionic fibers
e) are B and D.
d) postganglionic fibers
e) A and C
172) All of the following apply to preganglionic neurons of the ANS sympathetic
division except
162) In the ANS, the axons of ganglionic neurons are called ___________ fibers.
a) some fibers do not synapse until the collateral ganglia.
a) postganglionic
b) their axons emerge along the ventral roots of the spinal cord between
b) preganglionic
segments T1 and L2.
c) ganglionic
c) their cell bodies are situated in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
d) pseudoganglionic
d) their axons synapse with the peripheral effector organs.
e) A and C
e) their cell bodies are located between spinal segments T1 and L2.
163) In the ANS
173) Chain ganglia that fuse in the cervical region are called the
a) preganglionic fibers are unmyelinated.
a) otic ganglion.
b) motor neuron pathways synapse in the same patterns as in the somatic
b) intramural ganglia.
nervous system.
c) stellate ganglion.
c) there is always a synapse between the CNS motor neuron and the
d) ganglion impar.
peripheral effector.
e) pterygopalatine ganglion.
d) preganglionic fibers innervate the peripheral organs.
e) none of the above are true.
174) The collateral ganglion is located

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
a) lateral to the vertebral column.
b) in the wall of the organ to be innervated.
c) posterior to the vertebral column.
d) anterior to the vertebral column.
e) in none of the above locations.
175) A highly specialized region of the sympathetic division that causes
widespread sympathetic activation is found in (the)
a) spinal cord.
b) brain.
c) kidney.
d) adrenal medulla.
e) none of the above.
176) Myelinated axons of the sympathetic division
a) may be part of a diverging pathway.
b) may pass through the white ramus.
c) release NE.
d) are postganglionic sympathetic fibers.
e) have all of the above attributes.

Dr. Fickbohm

10

e) all of the above.
184) The component of the ANS that generally increases activity levels in its target
organs is (the)
a) sympathetic division.
b) preganglionic division.
c) sacral division.
d) cervicothoracic division.
e) none of the above.
185) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers
a) innervate as many as thirty-two ganglionic neurons in different ganglia.
b) stimulate contraction of smooth muscle fibers.
c) innervate the body wall and skeletal muscle fibers.
d) are adrenergic.
e) do none of the above.
186) General functions of the parasympathetic division include
a) constriction of the respiratory passageways.
b) secretion of hormones that promote nutrient absorption by peripheral
cells.
c) pupillary constriction.
d) secretion by digestive glands.
e) all of the above.

177) Which of the following is true of the structures of the sympathetic chain?
a) About 8 percent of the axons of each spinal nerve are parasympathetic
postganglionic fibers.
b) Each chain contains about 3 cervical, 11 thoracic, 4 lumbar, and 4 sacral
sympathetic ganglia.
187) The parasympathetic division of the ANS includes
c) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the cervical and
a) preganglionic neurons in the lumbar segments of the spinal cord.
thoracic regions only.
b) preganglionic neurons in the brain stem.
d) These nerves have white rami, but lack gray rami.
c) ganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic chain.
e) None of the above are true.
d) neurons with a greater range of effects upon the target organs than have
the neurons of the sympathetic division.
178) Autonomic dual innervation refers to situations in which
e) none of the above.
a) sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers cause the same effect.
b) vital organs receive instructions from both sympathetic and
188) Parasympathetic ganglia in the head include the
parasympathetic fibers.
a) splanchnic and mesenteric.
c) sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers have excitatory and inhibitory
b) collateral and celiac.
actions.
c) submandibular and otic.
d) ciliary and pterygopalatine.
d) the atria and ventricles of the heart receive innervation from the same
e) C and D.
nerve.
e) all of the above occur.
189) Cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic components are
179) Which of the following is not dual innervated?
a) II, IV, VI, VII, X.
a) esophagus
b) VII, VIII, IX, XI, XII.
b) digestive system
c) I, II, III, IV, V, VI.
c) sweat glands
d) III, VII, IX, X.
d) heart
e) None of the above combinations is correct.
e) lungs
190) Autonomic nerve plexuses in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities
180) Typical sympathetic postganglionic fibers that release norepinephrine at
include (the)
neuroeffector junctions are classified as
a) hypogastric.
a) norepinephric.
b) cardiac.
b) nonsecretory.
c) pulmonary.
c) cholinergic.
d) celiac.
d) adrenergic.
e) all of the above.
e) none of the above.
191) The pathway of the sacral parasympathetic nerves
181) The norepinephrine released by terminal knobs
a) joins the ventral roots of the spinal nerves.
a) affects its targets for only a few seconds.
b) sends fibers directly and independently to the urogenital organs.
b) may be inactivated by enzymes in the target tissues only.
c) forms distinct pelvic nerves that innervate intramural ganglia.
c) is all inactivated by enzymes in the bloodstream.
d) innervates the skin through the abdominal wall.
d) provides for localized effects of adrenal stimulation.
e) does none of the above.
e) has none of the above attributes.
192) The levels of activity in the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are
182) Generally speaking, the ANS
controlled by
a) releases several different neurotransmitters.
a) specific centers in the brain stem.
b) can inhibit or activate an organ.
b) monosynaptic reflexes.
c) causes relatively short-term changes.
c) the spinal cord.
d) is always active.
d) visceral motor neurons.
e) has all of the above attributes.
e) A and B.
183) Actions for which the sympathetic division of the ANS is responsible include 193) Autonomic nerve plexi in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities wherein
a) constriction of the pupils of the eyes.
sympathetic postganglionic fibers mix with parasympathetic preganglionic
b) acceleration of heart rate and increase in strength of cardiac contractions.
fibers include which of the following?
c) constriction of respiratory passages.
a) pulmonary
d) increase in digestive activity and the rate of urine formation at the
b) hypogastric plexus
c) cardiac
kidneys.

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
d) celiac
e) all of the above

Dr. Fickbohm

11

b) adrenal gland
c) stomach
d) kidney
e) spleen

194) The sympathetic division of the ANS differs from the parasympathetic
division of the ANS in that
a) the postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic system are relatively longer 203) Which of the following bodily activities is affected by actions of the
parasympathetic nervous system?
than those of the parasympathetic system.
a) decrease in urine output as a result of vasoconstriction of the kidneys
b) the sympathetic system has relatively longer preganglionic fibers than
b) increase of the ability of the blood to coagulate
does the parasympathetic system.
c) accommodation of the lens of the eye for close vision
c) the sympathetic system promotes rest, relaxation, repose, and nutrient
d) stimulation of the breakdown of fat
uptake, while the parasympathetic system increases alertness and
e) release of glucose into the blood by the liver
metabolism.
d) the sympathetic system is less divergent than is the parasympathetic.
204) Injury to the neurons of the collateral ganglion would affect the function of
e) none of the above are true.
(the)
a) sweat glands.
195) Brain regions that can affect the regulatory activities of the ANS include (the)
b) digestive tract.
a) hypothalamus.
c) heart.
b) cerebral cortex.
d) pupils.
c) thalamus.
e) all of the above.
d) limbic system.
e) all of the above.
205) In the autonomic nervous system two neurons are used outside of the CNS,
whereas in the somatic nervous system __________ neuron(s) are used
196) Complex sympathetic and parasympathetic reflexes are coordinated by
outside of the CNS.
specific processing centers in the medulla, which include
a) four
a) centers that control digestive secretion and peristalsis.
b) zero
b) the center for blood pressure regulation.
c) one
c) cardiovascular, vasomotor, and respiratory centers.
d) three
d) two centers that control and regulate genital function.
e) ten
e) A, B, and C.
197) Respiratory activities are partly controlled by
a) the thalamus.
b) centers in the pons.
c) the medulla oblongata.
d) all of the above.
e) B and C only.
198) Processing centers in the medulla oblongata coordinate which of the
following?
a) sensory reflexes
b) coughing reflex
c) emotions
d) defecation
e) all of the above
199) Signs of sympathetic stimulation include
a) deactivation of the extrapyramidal system.
b) a decrease in blood pressure.
c) an increase in cardiovascular and respiratory activity.
d) a feeling of lethargy.
e) A and B.
200) Increases in cardiac rates are mediated by ANS fibers
a) in the lesser splanchnic nerves passing through the celiac ganglion.
b) exiting from the middle and inferior cervical ganglia.
c) passing through the pterygopalatine ganglion without synapsing.
d) synapsing in the ciliary ganglion.
e) in none of the above situations.

206) Which of the following terms are acceptable alternate names for the
sympathetic chain ganglia?
a) lateral ganglia
b) paravertebral ganglia
c) collateral ganglia
d) otic ganglia
e) both A and B
207) Most ganglia of the ANS are paired; however, the __________ are unpaired.
a) pterygopalatine ganglia
b) paravertebral ganglia
c) adrenal medullae
d) collateral ganglia
e) otic ganglia
208) Structures in the head are innervated by the sympathetic division by
postganglionic fibers originating in (the)
a) inferior cervical ganglion.
b) superior cervical ganglion.
c) superior mesenteric ganglion.
d) inferior mesenteric ganglion.
e) none of the above.
209) Preganglionic fibers connecting the paravertebral ganglia to the collateral
ganglia make up (the)
a) cardiac nerves.
b) splanchnic nerves.
c) sympathetic trunk.
d) sympathetic chain.
e) none of the above.

201) A person who has difficulty swallowing is diagnosed as having esophageal
achalasia, a condition that involves the ANS. What division and action would
210) Which of the following is involved in the control of the inferior portion of the
you expect to be most involved with this problem?
abdominopelvic cavity?
a) parasympathetic, which causes excessive and irregular esophageal
a) the sacral region of the spinal cord
contraction
b) the parasympathetic nervous system
b) sympathetic, which causes too-rapid peristaltic movement of the
c) pelvic nerves
esophagus
d) intramural ganglia
c) a defect in the sympathetic swallowing center that coordinates
e) all of the above
esophageal contraction
d) defects in both sympathetic and parasympathetic responses, causing
211) Sacral splanchnic nerves end in (the)
esophageal spasms
a) hypogastric plexus.
e) none of the above
b) pelvic plexus.
c) esophageal plexus.
202) If the greater splanchnic nerve were cut prior to its exit from the celiac
d) splanchnic plexus.
ganglion, which of the following structures would be the most severely
e) none of the above.
affected?
a) small intestine

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB

Dr. Fickbohm

12

212) The neuroeffector junction of a postganglionic sympathetic neuron ends in a
e) None of the above are true.
large branching network with enlarged areas specifically called
a) adrenergic endplates.
222) The term "general senses" refers to the sensations of
b) synaptic knobs.
a) pain and proprioception.
c) varicosities.
b) pressure and vibration.
d) telodendria.
c) temperature.
e) none of the above.
d) touch.
e) all of the above.
213) The receptors that are found on all autonomic ganglionic neurons as well as at
the neuromuscular junction of the SNS are
223) General sensory receptors are
a) muscarinic receptors.
a) able to interpret sensations of many different stimulus types.
b) beta receptors.
b) responsible for providing sensations to the somatosensory cortex.
c) delta receptors.
c) concentrated at the ends of the limbs.
d) nicotinic receptors.
d) distributed throughout the body.
e) alpha receptors.
e) B and C.
214) The parasympathetic fibers that are involved in control of the thoracic and
abdominal viscera are part of the
a) glossopharyngeal nerve.
b) vagus nerve.
c) facial nerve.
d) trigeminal nerve.
e) oculomotor nerve.
215) Neural activity that controls the focusing of the eyes passes through the
_________ ganglion.
a) pterygopalatine
b) submandibular
c) otic
d) optic
e) ciliary
216) Solar plexus is another name for (the)
a) superior mesenteric plexus.
b) celiac plexus.
c) hypogastric plexus.
d) esophageal plexus.
e) none of the above.
217) The term enteric nervous system refers to
a) the set of neurons in the lower thoracic region of the cord that controls
the small intestine.
b) the rather large network of nerves involved in the inferior mesenteric
plexus.
c) the fact that the digestive system has its own neurons and is capable of
regulating itself without the CNS.
d) the complex of nerves covering the esophagus.
e) There is no such thing as an enteric nervous system.

224) Special sense organs include (the)
a) taste buds.
b) ear.
c) olfactory organs.
d) eye.
e) all of the above.
225) Processing of a stimulus so that one knows the likely source, type of stimulus,
and intensity of the stimulus is
a) thinking.
b) perception.
c) impossible.
d) sensation.
e) none of the above.
226) Which of the following is true of sensory adaptation?
a) It is not dependent upon synaptic fatigue.
b) It is the decline in activity along the afferent fiber after an initial strong
response.
c) It occurs when the receptors of sensory neurons retain a constant level of
activity.
d) It is an increase in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.
e) None of the above is true.
227) Which of the following is not a type of general sensory receptor?
a) thermoreceptor
b) auditory receptor
c) nociceptor
d) chemoreceptor
e) mechanoreceptor

228) All of the following are true of thermoreceptors except
a) they are located in the dermis of the skin.
218) The sympathetic nervous system releases ACh at the neuroeffector junction of
b) there are no known structural differences between heat and cold
a) cardiac muscle.
receptors.
b) all smooth muscles.
c) warmth receptors are three to four times more common than cold
c) blood vessels in skeletal muscles.
receptors.
d) digestive glands.
d) they are free nerve ending receptors.
e) all of the above.
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are true.
219) Which of the following is a sympathetic reflex?
a) pupillary reflex
b) defecation
c) swallowing
d) urination
e) coughing
220) Cell membranes
a) all respond to each different category of stimulus.
b) respond to changes in the extracellular environment.
c) respond to the same degree to all different types of stimuli.
d) do B and C.
e) All of the above are true.

221) Which of the following is true of receptors?
a) Each receptor is equally sensitive to several different types of stimuli.
b) The most complex, specific, and sensitive receptors are free nerve
endings.
c) They are evenly distributed over all surfaces of the body.
d) Each has a characteristic sensitivity.

229) Structurally free nerve endings, root hair plexi, and tactile discs are referred to
as
a) proprioceptors.
b) encapsulated receptors.
c) unencapsulated receptors.
d) pain receptors.
e) crude touch receptors.
230) Visceral pain that is sometimes felt in more superficial areas of the body is
called
a) nociceptive pain.
b) referred pain.
c) fast pain.
d) slow pain.
e) all of the above.
231) If your cat slinks by you, brushing your arm gently with his tail, the tactile
receptor most likely to respond to this stimulus is
a) Meissner's corpuscle.
b) Ruffini corpuscle.

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB
c) Pacinian corpuscle.
d) free nerve ending of a hair root.
e) none of the above.

232)

233)

234)

235)

236)

237)

238)

239)

240)

241)

Dr. Fickbohm

13

e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are true.

242) When air is drawn in through the nose,
a) sniffing repeatedly increases the intensity of the olfactory stimulation
Nociceptors
and permits sampling of virtually all of the air taken in at each
a) are large, structurally complex receptors.
inspiration.
b) are especially common in the viscera.
b) lipid-soluble materials are absorbed into the mucus prior to being able to
c) always convey very precise local information.
be smelled, while water-soluble molecules are sampled directly.
d) generally have large receptive fields.
c) it is swirled to provide the turbulence that brings airborne compounds to
e) have none of the above attributes.
the olfactory organs.
d) in a normal, relaxed inspiration approximately 80 percent of the air
When proprioceptors are stimulated, what kind of information is provided to
passes the olfactory organs.
the CNS?
e) none of the above happen.
a) pressure
b) position of limbs
243) Older individuals sometimes use large amounts of perfume because they lose
c) vibration
their sense of smell; this is related to
d) pH of body fluids
a) sensory adaptation.
e) none of the above
b) a decrease in the number of olfactory receptors.
c) a decrease in sensitivity of the olfactory cortex.
Blood pressure is monitored by (the)
d) central adaptation.
a) baroreceptors.
e) none of the above.
b) carotid sinus.
c) aortic sinus.
244) The papillae that contain the most taste buds are the
d) all of the above.
a) pharyngeal wall.
e) none of the above.
b) filiform papillae.
c) fungiform papillae.
Baroreceptors provide information about each of the following except
d) circumvallate papillae.
a) bladder volume.
e) none of the above.
b) arm muscle stretch.
c) digestive tract stretch.
245) Taste buds contain receptors that are
d) lung stretch.
a) proprioceptors.
e) blood vessel stretch.
b) mechanoreceptors.
c) chemoreceptors.
By what mechanism is respiratory function monitored by the aortic bodies?
d) nociceptors.
a) Baroreceptors monitor blood pressure.
e) pressoceptors.
b) Mechanoreceptors monitor the rate of blood flow.
c) Chemoreceptors monitor the concentration of carbon dioxide.
246) Which of the following cranial nerves transmit sensory impulses from the
d) Free nerve endings detect changes in blood vessel size.
taste buds?
e) None of the above regulate respiratory and cardiac function.
a) V, VII, IX, XI, XII
b) III, VI, VIII
c) VII, IX, X
Blood oxygen levels are monitored by (the)
d) I, II, IV
a) carotid neurothelium.
e) VII, IX, XI
b) aortic sinus.
c) aortic body.
247) The three main anatomical regions into which the ear is divided are
d) carotid sinus.
a) malleus, incus, and organ of Corti.
e) none of the above.
b) external ear, middle ear, and inner ear.
c) external ear, tympanum, and stapes.
Information about pressure and gas concentration in the common carotid
d) ceruminous gland, cochlea, and utricle.
artery travels to the medulla via (the)
e) none of the above.
a) vagus nerve.
b) cervical nerves.
248) Damage to the cupula of the lateral semicircular duct would interfere with our
c) glossopharyngeal nerve.
perception of
d) thoracic nerves.
a) the direction of gravitational pull.
e) none of the above.
b) linear acceleration.
c) horizontal rotation of the head.
Neurons in the hypothalamus that respond to carbon dioxide and acid levels in
d) vertical rotation of the head.
the cerebrospinal fluid are
e) none of the above.
a) mechanoreceptors.
b) proprioceptors.
249) Receptors that provide poor localization are receptors for
c) chemoreceptors.
a) deep pressure.
d) nociceptors.
b) crude touch.
e) none of the above.
c) temperature.
d) fine touch.
The olfactory organs consist of all of the following except
e) A and B.
a) basal cells.
b) specialized olfactory receptors within the epithelium.
250) Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are
c) olfactory glands, which are located in the underlying lamina propria.
a) nociceptors.
d) olfactory bulbs.
b) mechanoreceptors.
e) an olfactory epithelium.
c) chemoreceptors.
d) proprioceptors.
All of the following are true of olfactory discrimination except
e) none of the above.
a) the olfactory epithelium contains receptor populations with different
sensitivities.
251) Cells in the stratum germinativum that are sensitive to fine touch are called
b) it can distinguish from among thousands of chemical stimuli.
c) it can distinguish at least fifty primary smells.
a) Merkel cells.
d) olfactory cells lack structural differences.
b) basal cells.

Anat 1: Unit 3 MCQB

Dr. Fickbohm

c) stem cells.
d) keratinocytes.
e) melanocytes.

262) The size difference between the tympanic membrane and the oval window
causes vibrations to
a) amplify.
b) become more frequent.
c) become faint.
d) change tone.
e) do none of the above.

252) The external ear includes all of the following except the
a) pinna.
b) pharyngotympanic tube.
c) tympanic membrane.
d) external auditory canal.
e) ceruminous glands.
253) The ear and the nasopharynx are connected by the pharyngotympanic tube,
which connects the throat and (the)
a) inner ear.
b) external ear.
c) middle ear.
d) cochlea.
e) none of the above.
254) The auditory ossicles connect (the)
a) cochlea to the tympanic membrane.
b) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
c) tympanic membrane to the round window.
d) cochlea to the round window.
e) none of the above.
255) The system of fluid-filled tubes and chambers of the inner ear is called (the)
a) bony labyrinth.
b) cochlea.
c) endootic space.
d) membranous labyrinth.
e) all of the above.
256) The membranous labyrinth of the vestibular complex is filled with
a) plasma.
b) endolymph.
c) perilymph.
d) CSF.
e) none of the above.
257) Endolymph has
a) low sodium levels.
b) relatively high potassium levels.
c) the same ions as cerebrospinal fluid.
d) the same ions as extracellular fluid anywhere else in the body.
e) A and B.
258) Sensory receptors of the inner ear are
a) the tympanic membrane.
b) hair cells.
c) Merkel cells.
d) the ossicles.
e) none of the above.
259) The kinocilia and stereocilia of the hair cells in the semicircular ducts are
embedded in a gelatinous structure called (the)
a) organ of Corti.
b) ampulla.
c) crista.
d) cupula.
e) none of the above.
260) Calcium carbonate crystals in the utricle and saccule are called
a) stones.
b) otoliths.
c) maculae.
d) statoconia.
e) more than one of the above.
261) The auditory ossicle that attaches to the tympanic membrane is the
a) stapes.
b) malleus.
c) incus.
d) stirrup.
e) anvil.

14

263) All of the following correctly describe aspects of the auditory pathway except
a) hair cell stimulation activates sensory neurons.
b) the axons of the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve synapse
at the cochlear nucleus of the medulla.
c) the sensory neuron afferent fibers form the cochlear branch of the
vestibulocochlear nerve.
d) the sensory neuron cell bodies are in the cochlear ganglion.
e) there are no exceptions; all of the above are correct.
264) The organ of Corti (spiral organ)
a) contains hair cells whose stereocilia contact the tectorial membrane.
b) is distorted by pressure waves in the perilymph in response to sound.
c) contains the hair cells of the cochlear duct.
d) rests on the basilar membrane.
e) all of the above are true.
265) What aspect of hearing will be lost if the auditory cortex is damaged?
a) Only high-frequency sounds will be unable to be interpreted.
b) The individual will respond to sounds and have normal acoustic reflexes.
c) Tones and patterns will become incomprehensible.
d) Sound interpretation and pattern recognition will be difficult or
impossible.
e) None of the above will happen.
266) The epithelium covering the inner surface of the eyelids and the outer surface
of the eye is called (the)
a) cornea.
b) lacrimal caruncle.
c) lacrimal gland.
d) conjunctiva.
e) none of the above.
267) In correct order, the pathway followed by tears, after cleaning the eyes, is:
(1) entering the nasolacrimal duct
(2) accumulating at the medial canthus
(3) passing through the lacrimal puncta
(4) entering the lacrimal sac
(5) entering the lacrimal canals
(a) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(c) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
(d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(e) 3, 4,