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mentoring

mentoring

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Posted By View Student Profile
Subject General
Deadline (Pacific Time) 03/10/2017 12:00 am
Budget $10-$30

A. Review your Individual Development Plan from Topic 3 and the coaching and mentoring techniques you are considering for your mentee. How does your plan or your proposed techniques align with Christian values and principles? Be sure to specifically define two Christian values or principles in your response.

B. As a mentor, how will you help to identify key elements you want your mentee to include in the Individual Development Plan? Is there a difference between coaching and mentoring activities? Describe the importance of agreed-upon goals in an Individual Development Plan. In what ways will you go about achieving these goals?

File #1
The individual development plan outline
Personal vision statement: Improve the life of a mentee both professionally and also outside the work area.
Short time career goals (9-12 months):
Introduction: Help mentee familiarize with the mentor.
Support for improvement: Ensure effective learning.
Career development: Assist in classifying and supporting possible capacity.
Long term careers goals (2-5 years)
Support and counsel: Listen and challenge
Give constructive feedback: Ask open and closed questions
Coach and demonstrate skills: Identify strengths and weaknesses, establish priorities, identify developmental needs, give information and advice, share experience and tell stories.
Behavioral assessment is one of the coaching technique. The Personal Profile Analysis takes into account the behavior in a work situation and helps the mentor to compare the self-image and workingbehavior under pressure. The second technique is the enneagram. It is a character model that describes sensible and insensiblebehavior, beginning from people’s core fears and inspirations. The model provides understandings into one’s own personality and one’s relationship with other.
Reflective listening is a skill in mentorship that includes try to find understanding in what the mentee is talking about, encouraging the mentee to replicate on what they tell the mentor and said to simplify their understanding. Reflective listening suggests reflective conversation.Active questioning is another skill of mentoring people. It supplements reflective listening, and therefore can help the mentee to accomplish their goals. Examining questions help to pursue additional information and inspire the mentee to reason and discover solutions on their own.

Negative Message

Negative Message

Task: Choose one of the situations below and write an appropriate message. Audiences and formats are built into each problem. Make up whatever details you feel are necessary and develop your case.

Grading criteria: In this assignment, retaining goodwill is important – you might need the recipient’s services in the future. Be attentive to how you use credibility, audience emotions, etc. All aspects of communication matter. “Organization” includes how present the negative information (direct or indirect approach). “Self expression” is about maintaining goodwill. “Language use” includes tone.

Credit Refusal
You are the manager of Sports Warehouse, a new sporting goods store near the mall. Your store policy is to offer in-store credit accounts for customers who have good jobs and excellent credit. This week, you received a credit application from Maja Patel, a full-time graduate student at Brookfield University and an avid sports enthusiast. Maja went from high school to college, then to graduate school without ever working full time. She has few assets but not many liabilities because her parents paid for all of her expenses until she started graduate school. She is scheduled to graduate with a master’s degree next year. You have decided to refuse her credit application but you do not want to upset her because she will hopefully become a good customer after graduation. Write a credit refusal message to Maja, but retain goodwill.

Work Request Refusal
You have been out of school for five years now and things are going well. You earned your degree and are now successfully operating your own business consulting firm (you pick the area of expertise). Business is good; in fact, it is so good that you find it difficult to keep up with all of the requests for your services. One of your best clients has just asked you to take on a huge new project that would create enough work to keep your whole organization busy for three months. One of the things that you refuse to do, however, is accept more work than you can handle in an efficient, effective way for your clients. In this case, you have other commitments, so you must turn down this request. Write a message to your client explaining the situation and suggest possible alternative solutions to their needs.

Project Management Fail
You are the project manager for a specialized software company called ByteWare. Although your project management skills are quite good, you do occasionally run into unforeseen circumstances that lead to less-than-ideal results. Halfway through the installation of a new document management system (DMS) for an important client, you realize that you underestimated the complexity of linking this new DMS to the company’s existing document storage and retrieval system. Although your current contract with the firm allows for a 20 percent budget overrun, you have an established track record for completing projects on time and within budget. This time, however, you have the unpleasant task of explaining to your client that the project will take two weeks longer to complete than expected and will be fully 20 percent over budget. Carefully craft a message to your client and inform her of the situation.

roblem analysis

roblem analysis
Assignment:

1. Think of a product or service that has problems from a quality standpoint. Discuss the major topics of what you would write about if you had to report on the quality of that product or service to its producer or provider. How would your reporting be different if you were reporting these same topics to your friends and parents? Be descriptive!

2. Fix the grammar in the following sentences.

a. I could of gotten a better grade if I spent more time on the homework.
b. I did the same calculations as you but my solution is different than yours.
c. Don’t forget to complete sentence a, sentence b and sentence c.

3. Make the following sentences more concise.

a. Considering the fact that you need that class to graduate, you might as well get it out of the way so you move on towards more interesting classes.
b. In the event that I die, it is crucial that I give all my personal possessions to my sister.
c. In anticipation of another wind storm this year, there may be a need for a backup generator because there is a chance that we’d need to stay warm and protect our food from spoilage.

Formatting:

– Use black text only.
– Text size needs to be 12 point size.
– Text needs to be singled spaced.
– Margins on the document should be 1’’ on all sides.
– The following name block should appear in the upper right of your document:

Your Name
TECH 330 –Technology Problem Analysis I

– Title of your document is “Homework 2.”
– Paragraphs should have correct indentation.
– Please spell check and proofread your work.

Content:

Opinion: When a question asks for your opinion, its answer is exactly that-your opinion. Feel free to use your own opinion.
Cite Examples: For this class, you may use a citation right after the answer to a question, or you may list your references at the end of the project. It is not required to have a separate reference page for this class.
Stating the Question before Answering It: While some reports require that you state the question before your answer, in this classit is not required to do this.

Saving/Naming Your File:
When you save your file make sure that your name and the project number are included in it.
Example: YourName330HW2

Short Essay Format

Short essay format is a format that requires at least two paragraphs for each answer. Please remember that a paragraph is not just one, two, or three sentences in length.

describe god and his actions in personal opinion what adjectives charectize god personality and general conduct explain and example from text with citation in one paragraph and a half

forum

in the hebrew bible describe god and his actions in personal opinion what adjectives charectize god personality and general conduct explain and example from text with citation in one paragraph and a half

What Is Quality Research?

– What Is Quality Research?

What Is Quality Research?

As a scholar practitioner, it will be important for you to use professional journals and other research sources to guide your practice. Therefore, developing the skills to review, critically analyze, and discuss professional literature is essential. In the general population, people often believe information simply because it is in print. It is imperative that you avoid this common trap and critically evaluate research in professional journals prior to adopting findings to your practice with clients.

In this Discussion you consider the foundation of evidence-based practice and develop a conceptual understanding of the scholar practitioner model and how professional literature plays a role in all that you do as a practicing counselor.

Write a 1 page paper of an explanation of the importance of critically analyzing counseling research in terms of the consequences of applying the results of poorly conducted research to your practice as a counselor. Be specific and use examples to illustrate your point(s).

Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific reference

CST 183. Object-Oriented Software Design

CST 183. Object-Oriented Software Design

CST 183. Object-Oriented Software Design

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Posted By View Student Profile
Subject Computer
Deadline (Pacific Time) 03/11/2017 03:00 pm
Budget $30-$100
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Q1. A(n) ____ diagram is useful to denote which classes work together as a subsystem.
    a. package
    b. design class
    c. interaction
    d. design statechart

Q2. ____ are classes that system designers create to serve as a collection point for incoming messages.
    a. Persistent classes
    b. Use case controllers
    c. Control classes
    d. Links

Q3. The package notation is a ____.
    a. circle with an iconic symbol
    b. nested oval
    c. tabbed rectangle
    d. rounded rectangle

Q4. In an adaptive approach, a complete, formal set of design documents is developed before programming begins.
    a. true
    b. false

Q5. In design class notation, a(n) plus sign indicates that an attribute is private.
    a. true
    b. false

Q6. In a communication diagram, a(n) sequence number indicates the order of the messages.
    a. true
    b. false

Q7. CRC cards are index cards that are used to document the classes in a system, the ways the classes collaborate, and the responsibility for each class for each use case collaboration.
    a. true
    b. false

Q8. Design statechart diagrams are use extensively in designing business systems.
    a. true
    b. false

Q9. A ____ server applies the principle of indirection by appearing as a fake server, which catches all incoming messages and redistributes them to the recipients.
    a. communications
    b. client
    c. network
    d. proxy

Q10. Designers often sketch statechart fragments to illustrate a single control process in the system.
    a. true
    b. false

Q11. A Web page can be depicted in an implementation diagram by a frameset and stereotype.
    a. true
    b. false

Q12. Behavioral patterns provide solutions to meet the architectural needs of the system.
    a. true
    b. false

Q13. ____ is an advanced database tool to access databases from Web pages.
    a. HTML
    b. XML
    c. Cold Fusion
    d. JavaScript

Q14. In most instances, you can think of a(n) state in a statechart as the execution of a method.
    a. true
    b. false

Q15. In the book, Elements of Reusable Object-Oriented Software, the authors identify three basic design patterns.
    a. true
    b. false

Q16. Databases and DBMSs provide data access via a ____.
    a. query language
    b. data warehouse
    c. persistent class
    d. schema

Q17. ODL class definitions derive from the corresponding UML domain model class diagram.
    a. true
    b. false

Q18. The ODMG standards are the basis of the JDO standards, as well as some interfaces between ODBMSs and the C++ and SmallTalk programming languages.
    a. true
    b. false

Q19. In ODL class definitions, generalization associations are indicated with the keyword ____.
    a. relationship
    b. inverse
    c. extends
    d. matches

Q20. Declaring an association as a(n) ____ allows the ODBMS to allocate as many object identifier attributes of one object type to each object of the other type as are needed to represent association instances.
    a. primary key
    b. attribute
    c. complex type
    d. set

Q21. A database model is considered flexible and maintainable if changes to the database schema can be made with minimal disruption to existing data content and structure.
    a. true
    b. false

Q22. DBMSs provide simultaneous access by many users and application programs.
    a. true
    b. false

Q23. When designing for the computer medium, design for low bandwidth.
    a. true
    b. false

Q24. Browser forms can be displayed using any Internet browser.
    a. true
    b. false

Q25. Easy-to-learn interfaces are appropriate for office workers that use a system all day.
    a. true
    b. false

Q26. Activity diagrams can document the dialog between user and computer for a use case.
    a. true
    b. false

Q27. HTML is an acronym for Hypertext Markup Language.
    a. true
    b. false

Q28. The object-oriented approach to user-centered design focuses on users and their work by identifying actors, use cases, and scenarios followed when using the system..
    a. true
    b. false

Q29. System developers often construct forms with _____ to streamline the process and ensure user involvement.
    a. paper diagrams
    b. presentation tools
    c. outside vendors
    d. prototyping tools

Q30. Design activities for high risk system interfaces might come up in early inception phase iterations.
    a. true
    b. false

Q31. ____ and many Web-based systems are integrated with other systems through direct messaging.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD

Q32. ____ embeds beginning and ending markup codes within a text-based document to define the characteristics such as formatting of text or a figure.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD

Q33. An ad hoc report is the result of a(n) ____.
    a. concern raised by the programming team
    b. new user query to a database
    c. request based on analyst requirements
    d. error detected by the system

Q34. One of the most pervasive sources of erroneous data is ____.
    a. electronic pens
    b. bar-code readers
    c. human keystroking
    d. touch screens

Q35. IPSec and SSL cannot be used at the same time.
    a. true
    b. false

Q36. A(n) ____ report includes both detailed and summary information.
    a. turnaround
    b. control break
    c. executive
    d. ad hoc

Q37. A(n) beta version is a system update that provides bug fixes and small changes to existing features.
    a. true
    b. false

Q38. Parallel operation of old and new systems is generally best when the consequences of a system failure are low.
    a. true
    b. false

Q39. System testing is the process of testing individual methods, classes, or components before they are integrated with other software.
    a. true
    b. false

Q40. Change management procedures for a small project with a cohesive development staff may be informal or nonexistent.
    a. true
    b. false

Q41. Software components are built, acquired, and integrated in the ____ discipline.
    a. design
    b. implementation
    c. testing
    d. deployment

Q42. Beta and production versions must be stored as long as they are installed on any user machines.
    a. true
    b. false

Q43. Foundation classes are typically reused in many parts of the system.
    a. true
    b. false

Q44. In XP development, a(n) ____ can guide members toward a vision and help them understand the system.
    a. sprint
    b. system metaphor
    c. object framework
    d. metamodel

Q45. ____ is a driving force in technologies such as Web services, CORBA, .NET, and ERP systems.
    a. Modeling
    b. Reuse
    c. Refactoring
    d. Inheritance

Q46. The Scrum master sets the project schedule and assigns tasks.
    a. true
    b. false

Q47. The quality of the code is always higher in a pair-programming environment.
    a. true
    b. false

Q48. The first release-level activity in an XP development approach is ____.
    a. performing acceptance testing
    b. creating acceptance tests
    c. planning a series of iterations
    d. dividing code units among teams

Q49. ____ is a philosophy and set of guidelines for developing software in an unknown, rapidly changing environment.
    a. SOAP
    b. Pair programming
    c. Agile Development
    d. Refactoring

Q50. In XP, release-level activities occur once during each development project.
    a. true
    b. false
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Q1. A(n) ____ diagram is useful to denote which classes work together as a subsystem.
    a. package
    b. design class
    c. interaction
    d. design statechart

Q2. ____ are classes that system designers create to serve as a collection point for incoming messages.
    a. Persistent classes
    b. Use case controllers
    c. Control classes
    d. Links

Q3. The package notation is a ____.
    a. circle with an iconic symbol
    b. nested oval
    c. tabbed rectangle
    d. rounded rectangle

Q4. In an adaptive approach, a complete, formal set of design documents is developed before programming begins.
    a. true
    b. false

Q5. In design class notation, a(n) plus sign indicates that an attribute is private.
    a. true
    b. false

Q6. In a communication diagram, a(n) sequence number indicates the order of the messages.
    a. true
    b. false

Q7. CRC cards are index cards that are used to document the classes in a system, the ways the classes collaborate, and the responsibility for each class for each use case collaboration.
    a. true
    b. false

Q8. Design statechart diagrams are use extensively in designing business systems.
    a. true
    b. false

Q9. A ____ server applies the principle of indirection by appearing as a fake server, which catches all incoming messages and redistributes them to the recipients.
    a. communications
    b. client
    c. network
    d. proxy

Q10. Designers often sketch statechart fragments to illustrate a single control process in the system.
    a. true
    b. false

Q11. A Web page can be depicted in an implementation diagram by a frameset and stereotype.
    a. true
    b. false

Q12. Behavioral patterns provide solutions to meet the architectural needs of the system.
    a. true
    b. false

Q13. ____ is an advanced database tool to access databases from Web pages.
    a. HTML
    b. XML
    c. Cold Fusion
    d. JavaScript

Q14. In most instances, you can think of a(n) state in a statechart as the execution of a method.
    a. true
    b. false

Q15. In the book, Elements of Reusable Object-Oriented Software, the authors identify three basic design patterns.
    a. true
    b. false

Q16. Databases and DBMSs provide data access via a ____.
    a. query language
    b. data warehouse
    c. persistent class
    d. schema

Q17. ODL class definitions derive from the corresponding UML domain model class diagram.
    a. true
    b. false

Q18. The ODMG standards are the basis of the JDO standards, as well as some interfaces between ODBMSs and the C++ and SmallTalk programming languages.
    a. true
    b. false

Q19. In ODL class definitions, generalization associations are indicated with the keyword ____.
    a. relationship
    b. inverse
    c. extends
    d. matches

Q20. Declaring an association as a(n) ____ allows the ODBMS to allocate as many object identifier attributes of one object type to each object of the other type as are needed to represent association instances.
    a. primary key
    b. attribute
    c. complex type
    d. set

Q21. A database model is considered flexible and maintainable if changes to the database schema can be made with minimal disruption to existing data content and structure.
    a. true
    b. false

Q22. DBMSs provide simultaneous access by many users and application programs.
    a. true
    b. false

Q23. When designing for the computer medium, design for low bandwidth.
    a. true
    b. false

Q24. Browser forms can be displayed using any Internet browser.
    a. true
    b. false

Q25. Easy-to-learn interfaces are appropriate for office workers that use a system all day.
    a. true
    b. false

Q26. Activity diagrams can document the dialog between user and computer for a use case.
    a. true
    b. false

Q27. HTML is an acronym for Hypertext Markup Language.
    a. true
    b. false

Q28. The object-oriented approach to user-centered design focuses on users and their work by identifying actors, use cases, and scenarios followed when using the system..
    a. true
    b. false

Q29. System developers often construct forms with _____ to streamline the process and ensure user involvement.
    a. paper diagrams
    b. presentation tools
    c. outside vendors
    d. prototyping tools

Q30. Design activities for high risk system interfaces might come up in early inception phase iterations.
    a. true
    b. false

Q31. ____ and many Web-based systems are integrated with other systems through direct messaging.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD

Q32. ____ embeds beginning and ending markup codes within a text-based document to define the characteristics such as formatting of text or a figure.
    a. HCI
    b. EDI
    c. HTML
    d. DTD

Q33. An ad hoc report is the result of a(n) ____.
    a. concern raised by the programming team
    b. new user query to a database
    c. request based on analyst requirements
    d. error detected by the system

Q34. One of the most pervasive sources of erroneous data is ____.
    a. electronic pens
    b. bar-code readers
    c. human keystroking
    d. touch screens

Q35. IPSec and SSL cannot be used at the same time.
    a. true
    b. false

Q36. A(n) ____ report includes both detailed and summary information.
    a. turnaround
    b. control break
    c. executive
    d. ad hoc

Q37. A(n) beta version is a system update that provides bug fixes and small changes to existing features.
    a. true
    b. false

Q38. Parallel operation of old and new systems is generally best when the consequences of a system failure are low.
    a. true
    b. false

Q39. System testing is the process of testing individual methods, classes, or components before they are integrated with other software.
    a. true
    b. false

Q40. Change management procedures for a small project with a cohesive development staff may be informal or nonexistent.
    a. true
    b. false

Q41. Software components are built, acquired, and integrated in the ____ discipline.
    a. design
    b. implementation
    c. testing
    d. deployment

Q42. Beta and production versions must be stored as long as they are installed on any user machines.
    a. true
    b. false

Q43. Foundation classes are typically reused in many parts of the system.
    a. true
    b. false

Q44. In XP development, a(n) ____ can guide members toward a vision and help them understand the system.
    a. sprint
    b. system metaphor
    c. object framework
    d. metamodel

Q45. ____ is a driving force in technologies such as Web services, CORBA, .NET, and ERP systems.
    a. Modeling
    b. Reuse
    c. Refactoring
    d. Inheritance

Q46. The Scrum master sets the project schedule and assigns tasks.
    a. true
    b. false

Q47. The quality of the code is always higher in a pair-programming environment.
    a. true
    b. false

Q48. The first release-level activity in an XP development approach is ____.
    a. performing acceptance testing
    b. creating acceptance tests
    c. planning a series of iterations
    d. dividing code units among teams

Q49. ____ is a philosophy and set of guidelines for developing software in an unknown, rapidly changing environment.
    a. SOAP
    b. Pair programming
    c. Agile Development
    d. Refactoring

Q50. In XP, release-level activities occur once during each development project.
    a. true
    b. false
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Vocab unit 8 level b

Vocab unit 8 level b

    a. true

    a. true
    b. false

Q39. System testing is the process of testing individual methods, classes, or components before they are integrated with other software.
    a. true
    b. false

Q40. Change management procedures for a small project with a cohesive development staff may be informal or nonexistent.
    a. true
    b. false

Q41. Software components are built, acquired, and integrated in the ____ discipline.
    a. design
    b. implementation
    c. testing
    d. deployment

Q42. Beta and production versions must be stored as long as they are installed on any user machines.
    a. true
    b. false

Q43. Foundation classes are typically reused in many parts of the system.
    a. true
    b. false

Q44. In XP development, a(n) ____ can guide members toward a vision and help them understand the system.
    a. sprint
    b. system metaphor
    c. object framework
    d. metamodel

Q45. ____ is a driving force in technologies such as Web services, CORBA, .NET, and ERP systems.
    a. Modeling
    b. Reuse
    c. Refactoring

Principles of Management

Principles of Management

Provide comprehensive essay answers to each of the following questions; PPT diagrams and other graphics can be used to illustrate your text answers as needed. This assignment is due by 3pm on Thursday, March 9th without fail via Canvas submission in the assignment section of this module.
1.) Conduct a comprehensive P-3 Analysis (the triad of process, product and people) to an existing company that You did not discussed in class or Canvas, a non-profit entity, or an organization of your own innovation. (40 points) 2.) Conduct a SWOT Analysis on the organization selected in Question 1 or any of the other team enterprises besides your team’s enterprise, or a state or city of your choice assuming the office of Governor or Mayor. (15 points) 3.) You have been individually assigned with the planning and execution of three specific strategic initiatives from one of the other team enterprises or an entity used in the previous two questions. Delineate each of the three – possibly using an aegis – to include why it is important, how you intend to make it a reality and how you would move from “general to specific” with targeted, purposed tactics and actions. (15 points) 4.) Considering the communication text in The Midterm Project Canvas Module, select and delineate a set of C-Factors (e.g., clarity, change, candor, etc.) and other concepts in that text that you believe are essential to management and organizational effectiveness. (15 points) 5.) You have been invited back to your high school to present a quick seminar on how to prepare and deliver an effective group presentation. Considering our class team enterprise presentations and evaluations, as well as our presentation guide apparent in The Midterm Project Canvas Module, what five elements would be centric to your seminar? (15 points)
    d. Inheritance

Q46. The Scrum master sets the project schedule and assigns tasks.
    a. true
    b. false

Q47. The quality of the code is always higher in a pair-programming environment.
    a. true
    b. false

Q48. The first release-level activity in an XP development approach is ____.
    a. performing acceptance testing
    b. creating acceptance tests
    c. planning a series of iterations
    d. dividing code units among teams

Q49. ____ is a philosophy and set of guidelines for developing software in an unknown, rapidly changing environment.
    a. SOAP
    b. Pair programming
    c. Agile Development
    d. Refactoring

Q50. In XP, release-level activities occur once during each development project.
   Â

riemann-stieltjes integral The attached file is the outline of my midterm exam. But I have no idea how to start it. Hope someone can give some example or porve of the outline.

riemann-stieltjes integral
The attached file is the outline of my midterm exam.

But I have no idea how to start it. Hope someone can give some example or porve of the outline.