Category: Uncategorized

Describe your understanding of the term “phonemic awareness.”

Question
	

Question 1
In your own words, explain the importance of teaching vocabulary within the context of meaningful conversation in the early childhood classroom. How do you accomplish this now or what steps could you take to ensure this occurs in the future?
Support your statements with evidence from the required studies and your research.
 
Question 2
Describe your understanding of the term "phonemic awareness.”
Choose any three activities in the text (or activities you currently use with young children) and explain how each one helps develop phonemic awareness in the early childhood classroom.
Support your statements with evidence from the required studies and your research
	

Question_Kotler_9Dec_2nd

Question
	31) Critics claim that companies in the ________ industries introduce planned streams of
new products that make older models obsolete, a form of planned obsolescence that harms
consumers.
A) car and truck
B) housing and construction
C) food and beverage
D) consumer electronics and computer
E) financial and entertainment
32) Critics who believe that the American marketing system poorly serves disadvantaged
consumers claim that the ________ pay more for inferior goods.
A) wealthy
B) uneducated
C) urban poor
D) rural poor
E) elderly
33) The presence of ________ in low-income neighborhoods makes a big difference in keeping
prices down.
A) malls
B) small stores
C) redlining companies
D) large national chain stores
E) factory outlets
34) When major chain retailers avoid placing stores in disadvantaged neighborhoods, they are
likely to be accused of the discriminatory practice of ________.
A) embargo
B) licensing
C) redlining
D) puffery
E) scrambling merchandise
35) Critics claim that mortgage lenders used ________. Instead of staying away from people in
poor urban areas, they targeted and exploited them by steering them toward subprime loans even
though many qualified for safer fixed-rate loans.
A) reverse redlining
B) redlining
C) puffery
D) licensing
E) the push strategy
36) Several companies, some of them operating through the Internet, offer "paycheck advances."
Consumers are encouraged to take out a loan against a paycheck they expect to receive in the
near future. These short-term loans with high-interest rates, and high penalties for late payments,
are often marketed to consumers who do not have traditional bank accounts. These companies
could most easily be criticized for which of the following?
A) shoddy products
B) poor service to disadvantaged consumers
C) high-pressure selling
D) high advertising and promotion costs
E) excessive markups
37) Critics have charged that the marketing system urges too much interest in ________.
A) material possessions
B) the push strategy
C) meeting a quota
D) new product invention
E) entering the global market arena
38) Critics of the American economic marketing system have charged that marketers have
created a culture in which people are judged by what they ________.
A) are
B) own
C) do
D) eat
E) avoid
39) Bill Talen, also known as the Reverend Billy, leader of the Church of Stop Shopping, wants
people to resist the temptation to shop. He annually leads a group of volunteers in his post-Thanksgiving Buy Nothing Parade in front of Macy's in Manhattan. Bill Talen is criticizing the
American marketing system for creating ________.
A) too few social goods
B) environmental problems
C) shoddy products
D) false wants and too much materialism
E) predatory competition
40) Businesses hire ________ firms to use mass media to create materialistic models of the good
life.
A) Hollywood
B) Broadway
C) Madison Avenue
D) Fifth Avenue
E) Michigan Avenue
41) Critics say marketing is seen as benefiting ________ more than ________.
A) consumers; industry
B) industry; consumers
C) stores; manufacturers
D) exporters; importers
E) independent sellers; chain stores
42) Our wants and values are LEAST influenced by which of the following?
A) family
B) education
C) religion
D) cultural background
E) intermediaries
43) The overselling of private goods results in ________, such as cars causing traffic jams, air
pollution, injuries, and deaths.
A) cultural pollution
B) misdirected funding
C) social costs
D) materialism
E) opportunity costs
44) To restore the balance between private and public goods, producers could be required to bear
the full ________ costs of their operations.
A) promotional
B) cultural
C) environmental
D) social
E) safety
45) For cars, "social costs" include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) traffic congestion
B) air pollution
C) gasoline shortages
D) congestion tolls
E) traffic accidents
46) TerraPass is a company that offers consumers the opportunity to buy carbon offsets,
which are contributions to projects that combat global warming by reducing carbon emissions.
TerraPass offers contribution packages for driving, flying, and home energy use. Through
TerraPass, consumers can pay some of the ________ costs of their private goods and services.
A) promotional
B) safety
C) health
D) distribution
E) social
47) Cultural pollution could be referred to as ________.
A) commercial noise
B) air pollution
C) language barriers
D) a marketer's inability to identify a target market
E) zipping or zapping
48) All of the following are examples of cultural pollution EXCEPT ________.
A) commercials during serious programs
B) ads in magazines
C) street signs in an urban area
D) billboards marring beautiful scenery
E) spam in an e-mail inbox
49) Karl Lagaros, a marketing critic, is concerned about the pervasiveness about marketing. He
points to advertising messages everywhere, from Web sites and e-mails to unwanted direct mail
and catalogs to television commercials and product tie-ins to billboards and store signage. Karl is
concerned about ________.
A) high advertising and promotion costs
B) cultural pollution
C) deceptive practices
D) false wants and too much materialism
E) the balance between private goods and social goods
50) In response to charges of ________, marketers point out that advertising makes much of
television and radio free to users and also keeps down the cost of magazines and newspapers.
A) too few social goods
B) creating false wants
C) creating too much materialism
D) high promotion costs
E) cultural pollution
51) Cultural pollution continually pollutes people's minds with all of the following messages
EXCEPT ________.
A) materialism
B) sex
C) power
D) religion
E) status
52) Large marketing companies can use patents and heavy promotion spending to ________.
A) acquire smaller companies
B) bear the social costs of their operations
C) set up barriers for others wanting to enter the industry
D) achieve economies of scale
E) offset cultural pollution
53) All of the following are potential advantages of acquisition EXCEPT?
A) The acquiring company can gain economies of scale.
B) Acquisitions require little government oversight.
C) An acquiring company may improve the efficiency of an acquired company.
D) An industry might become more competitive after an acquisition.
E) The acquisition may result in lower costs, leading to lower prices for consumers.
54) Setting prices below cost, threatening to cut off business with suppliers, and discouraging the
purchase of a competitor's products are all examples of ________.
A) routine competition
B) excessive materialism
C) predatory competition
D) acquisitions
E) barriers to entering a market
55) The two major movements to keep business in line are environmentalism and ________.
A) consumerism
B) protectionism
C) antimonopoly legislation
D) regulating interstate commerce
E) innovation
56) The first organized consumer movement in the United States took place in the early 1900s. It
was fueled by all of the following conditions EXCEPT ________.
A) rising prices
B) conditions in the meat industry
C) unsafe merchandise
D) scandals in the drug industry
E) Upton Sinclair's writing
57) Ralph Nader is most closely associated with which of the following?
A) the consumerism movement of the 1960s
B) the environmentalism movement of the 1960s and 1970s
C) the current wave of environmentalism
D) enlightened marketing
E) consumer-oriented marketing
58) ________ is an organized movement of citizens and government agencies to improve the
rights and power of buyers in relation to sellers.
A) Environmentalism
B) The Bi
ll of Rights
C) Grassroots politics
D) Consumerism
E) The Human Relations Movement
59) All of the following are traditional sellers' rights EXCEPT ________.
A) the right to charge any price for the product
B) the right to spend any amount to promote the product
C) the right to promote any product to any audience
D) the right to use any buying incentive programs
E) the right to introduce any product in any size and style
60) Consumer advocates call for all of the following additional consumer rights EXCEPT
________.
A) the right to be protected from unwanted marketing messages
B) the right to be well informed about important product aspects
C) the right to be protected against questionable products and marketing practices
D) the right to influence marketing practices in ways that will improve the quality of life
E) the right to influence products in ways that will improve the quality of life	

Compare and contrast job order costing to process costing methods

Question
	

- Compare and contrast job order costing to process costing methods. 
- What kind of system works best in what kinds of companies? 
- What kind of system makes sense for your company, given that you plan to start with only one version of your product but at some point in the future may offer a variety of options? 
	

Law Scenario Based MCQs

Question
	

Penn was invited to attend a party hosted by Sara. Unknown to Penn, Sara had also invited Dusty. Dusty and Penn were enemies who had vowed to kill each other on sight. Penn arrived at Sara's party first and was standing in the kitchen when he saw Dusty enter the front door. Penn went out the back door to retrieve his pistol from the car, intending to come back into the party and shoot Dusty. Penn brought the pistol into the house and attempted to move close enough to Dusty to fire a shot at her while Dusty could see who was shooting her. Before Penn could pull the trigger, a police officer who was also attending the party grabbed Penn, quietly disarmed him and removed Penn from the party. An inspection of the pistol at the police station determined that it was not loaded. The following day, Dusty called to thank Sara for inviting her to the party. Dusty then learned for the first time that Penn had attended the party and had been disarmed while trying to get into position to shoot Dusty. Shocked at how close she came to death, Dusty suffered a heart attack and was rushed to the hospital.

If Dusty brings an action for assault against Penn, Dusty will

A recover, because Penn intended to cause Dusty to see Penn shoot Dusty.
B recover, because Penn committed a substantial act with the intent to cause immediate harm.
C not recover, because Penn had failed to use a loaded weapon.
D not recover, because Dusty was not aware of Penn's conduct at the time of the threat to her life.

A and B owned two adjacent lots. Both parties had begun construction of a house and garage on their lot. Unknown to either party, A's garage, when completed, would encroach onto B's land by three feet. After he had finished construction of the house and garage (which did in fact encroach onto B's land by three feet when completed), A sold the house, garage and lot to Davis. Two weeks later, B discovered that the garage on Davis' property encroached onto B's land. B brought a suit for trespass to land against A.

Will B prevail?

A No, A is not the owner of the structure which is encroaching on B's land.
B No, unless A had knowledge that his garage was encroaching on B's land during construction
C Yes, regardless of whether A knew or had reason to know of the encroachment.
D Yes, unless Davis was aware of the encroachment at the time of purchase.

Joker was invited to a cocktail party at the home of Host. Joker knew that Host was terribly afraid of mice so Joker brought his pet mouse in his pocket to the party intending to play a joke on Host in the middle of the party by letting the mouse run across the dinner table when everyone was seated. Spoiler, another party guest, found out about Joker's plan to let the mouse run across the dinner table and immediately informed Host right after Joker sat down at the table. Host was relieved, but had to retire to the bedroom and lie down when Host thought about how close Host had come to having her entire party ruined by Joker.
If Host brings a lawsuit against Joker for intentional infliction of emotional distress, Host will need to prove the following in order to recover damages:
I. Joker intended to physically injure Host.
II. Joker's conduct was extreme and outrageous.
III. Host must have suffered severe mental distress.
IV. Host must have suffered some type of physical injury.
A I and II.
B II and III.
C I and III.
D II and IV.

P owned a twenty-five acre parcel of undeveloped land that was adjacent to a public lake. D lived in a cabin located on property that bordered P's parcel. For the last two years, D had been walking on a path across P's land to reach the lake. One day, P came to visit his land and saw D walking across his property on the path. P told D to get off his land and never use the path again. D apologized and truthfully stated that D thought the path was a public right-of-way and promised P that he would never use the path again.
If P brings an action against D for trespass, who will prevail?
A P, and P may recover nominal damages because D intentionally used the path to reach the lake.
B D, but only if D does refrain from using the path in the future as promised.
C D, because P suffered no actual injury as a result of the trespass.
D D, because D thought the pathway was open to the public.
Able and Baker were each driving in their automobiles when Baker and Able collided. Both parties were negligent because at the moment of impact, Able was speeding and Baker failed to signal when making a lane change.
If the jurisdiction in which both parties live and where the accident occurred had adopted the pure form of comparative negligence, how should the court rule when Able sues Baker for injuries sustained in the collision?
Able and Baker were playing football in the street. Able threw a long pass to Baker. Baker ran into an automobile driven by Charlie while attempting to catch the pass and suffered from several broken bones and other internal injuries. Able saw the automobile approaching but threw the long pass anyway, believing that Charlie would see Baker and stop his automobile safely before reaching Baker. Baker brought suit against Able and Charlie to recover for his injuries. At the close of the trial, the jury determined that Baker had suffered $100,000 in damages and that Able was 40% at fault, Baker 10% at fault, and Charlie was 50% at fault for causing the injuries Baker sustained. Assume all parties are solvent and have sufficient assets and insurance to cover any judgment amount awarded. The jurisdiction has adopted a pure form of comparative negligence, abolished both contributory negligence and the doctrine of last clear chance, but retains joint and several liability.
If Baker seeks to recover a portion of the $100,000 judgment from Able, will Baker succeed?
A No, because Baker's negligence was a substantial factor which led to his injury.
B No, because Charlie's negligence exceeded Baker's.
C Yes, because Able's negligence exceeded Baker's.
D Yes, because Able's negligence was a substantial factor which caused Baker's injuries.
Patient suffers from high blood pressure and needs to have surgery to remove a stomach ulcer. Surgeon ordered the surgery without consulting Patient's cardiologist, who was treating patient for high blood pressure and a related heart condition. While in surgery to remove the stomach ulcer, Patient suffers a massive heart attack. Patient is kept alive by artificial means, but is considered brain dead with no hope for recovery as a consequence of the heart attack. Pursuant to a living will written by Patient shortly before entering the hospital for surgery, Patient's family orders the hospital to remove all life sustaining medical equipment, except that necessary to ease pain and suffering.
Patient dies, and a lawsuit is brought by the family of Patient on Patient's behalf against Surgeon. In this action, the plaintiffs (family of Patient acting on Patient's behalf) should
A not prevail, absent proof that Patient's cardiologist would have recommended a different course of treatment and that Surgeon reasonably should have followed the recommendation.
B not prevail, because Patient was removed from life-sustaining equipment at his own request.
C prevail, because Surgeon failed to consult with Patient's cardiologist.
D prevail, if the heart attack was caused by the surgery conducted by Surgeon.

	

BEH/225 – Complete a TV Character Evaluation

Question
	

Complete a TV Character Evaluation
Part I
Write a summary of 350-700 words identifying the contributions of Freud, Jung, and Rogers.
Part II
Choose three of your favorite television characters; past or present.
Complete the following matrix describing the characters’ personalities from the point of view of the three theorists, Jung, Freud, and Rogers.
I have the Appendix that the information has to be posted on. This is what is has to be done. The TV Character Evaluation Part I: You will provide a summary of Freud's theory, Jung's theory, and Rogers' theory. In Part II: you will select 3 TV characters (past or present) and then you will "evaluate" those 3 characters using each of the 3 theorist's approaches: Freud, Jung, and Rogers.
For example you could pick Zack Morris (Saved by the Bell), Bob Par (Incredibles), and Bugs Bunny (Looney Tunes).
Then you would write up what Freud would say about each character(i.e. - id, ego, superego, and/or defense mechanism(s), and/orpersonality stage fixation, etc),
What Jung would say about each character (i.e. - personal unconscious, collective unconscious, and/or persona, anima/animus, and/or extrovert/introvert, and/or rational/irrational, etc),
What Rogers would say about each character(i.e. - fully functioning person, self-actualizing tendency and/or unconditional/conditional positive regard, etc).
	

MGT 310 Quiz 3 MCQs

Question
	

Question 1 of 25
Environmental scanning is a:
A.Planning process 
B.Organizing process 
C.Leading process 
D.Controlling process 
Question 2 of 25
Conscientiousness is the one personality trait that uniformly predicts:
A.How highly adaptable to change a person is 
B.How highly motivated a person is to learn a new skill 
C.How highly detailed a person will be 
D.How highly performance oriented a person will be 
Question 3 of 25
Why should managers understand how visual perception may be biased?
A.Managers have a tendency to compare and contrast objects and people to each other. 
B.Managers are prone to errors and biases when perceiving themselves. 
C.Managers rely on their visual perception to form their opinions about people and objects around them.
D.Bias in visual perception tends to interfere with the management process. 
Question 4 of 25
How we perceive others will shape our behavior, which in turn:
A.Will shape the behavior of the person we are interacting with 
B.Will lead to undue success or failure 
C.May lead to wrong inferences about objects in our environment 
D.Will lead to generalizations
Question 5 of 25
Exit interviews are often conducted by:
A.Employee manager 
B.Human resources representative 
C.Outside consultants 
D.Top management 
Question 6 of 25
Managers need to consider the individual and the situation when making:
A.Organizing decisions about the job 
B.Leading decisions about the organization 
C.Controlling decisions about the departments 
D.Planning decisions about the strategies of the company 
Question 7 of 25
Motivating employees is a managerial function of:
A.Leading 
B.Controlling 
C.Organizing 
D.Planning 
Question 8 of 25
How much of a manager’s time is spent communicating?
A.10-25% 
B.25-50% 
C.50-90% 
D.90-100% 
Question 9 of 25
A downside of the office grapevine is:
A.Information is not accurate 
B.Managers do not participate in the exchange of information 
C.The grapevine lacks a specific sender 
D.The informal structure hinders communication 
Question 10 of 25
Stories can serve to reinforce and perpetuate an organization’s culture, which is part of the POLC function of :
A.Planning 
B.Organizing 
C.Leading 
D.Controlling 
Question 11 of 25
According to one study, what percent of a receiver’s comprehension of a message is based on the sender’s actual words?
A.3% 
B.5% 
C.7% 
D.10% 
Question 12 of 25
Which of the following is not an example of a medium rich communication channel?
A.Handheld devices 
B.Blogs 
C.Written letters and memos 
D.Legal documents
Question 13 of 25
Communication within an organization flows:
A.Upward 
B.Downward 
C.Lateral 
D.Many directions 
Question 14 of 25
How groups function has important implications for organizational:
A.Hierarchy 
B.Mission and vision 
C.POLC function 
D.Productivity 
Question 15 of 25
Group members are becoming more authentic as they express their deeper thoughts and feelings in the stage of:
A.Forming 
B.Storming 
C.Norming 
D.Performing 
Question 16 of 25
An ideal time to host a social or team-building event is at the stage of
A.Forming 
B.Storming 
C.Norming 
D.Performing
Question 17 of 25
The tendency of individuals to put in less effort when working in a group context is called:
A.Groupthink 
B.Cohesion 
C.Punctuated equilibrium 
D.Ringelmann effect 
Question 18 of 25
Teams that individuals from different parts of the organization are called:
A.Task force 
B.Product development teams 
C.Cross-functional teams 
D.Virtual teams 
Question 19 of 25
Pooled interdependence exists when:
A.Team members may work independently and simply combine their efforts to create the team’s output 
B.If one person’s output becomes another person’s input 
C.When the team decides they should work together on each phase of a project 
D.The reward that an individual receives depends on the performance of others. 
Question 20 of 25
A key consideration when forming a team is to understand the personality traits needed before starting the selection process as well as the team members’:
A.KSAs 
B.Potential 
C.Leadership traits 
D.Work ethic
Question 21 of 25
The implications of the ERG theory is that we need to recognize which of the following?
A.The multiple needs that may be driving an individual at a given point 
B.Understand group behaviors 
C.Job design is critical to motivation 
D.How to reward employees better 
Question 22 of 25
Job design is one of the many organizational design decisions managers must make when engaged in the POLC function of:
A.Planning 
B.Organizing 
C.Leading 
D.Controlling 
Question 23 of 25
Controls can cost the organization through
A.decentralized decision-making. 
B.opportunity recognition. 
C.botched implementation. 
D.layoffs 
Question 24 of 25
One of four top mistakes companies appear to make regarding how to set and use non-financial controls effectively is
A.not to link control to customer demands. 
B.failing to validate the link between non-financial control and financial control. 
C.failing to set appropriate performance targets. 
D.failing to set goals too high 
Question 25 of 25
One way to help employees connect with the people and things that will help them achieve their professional goals is to:
A.Develop goals that stretch their ability 
B.Give them assignments that are engaging 
C.Connect people with mentors and help them build networks 
D.Promote deserving employees 
	

I am looking for someone that is good in IDS 300 I need help with test.

Question
	I am looking for someone that is good in IDS 300 I need help with test.	

Require a paragraph or two about the movie “The Mighty.”

Question
	
Require a paragraph or two about the movie "The Mighty." consider problems faced by students who are different in terms of academic ability, size or physical disability; each of these topics are prevalent in the movie. Discuss how family impacts classroom performance; both Max and Kevin were without fathers, a commonality that helped solidify their friendship. Family structure could be discussed in terms of how the "traditional" family has changed to include grandparents raising grandchildren, as in the case of Max; and single parenting, as in the case of Kevin. You may want to talk about honesty and integrity; both boys show they have integrity when they chose to return the purse to its rightful owner. Finally, you may want to discuss loss and death, and how children respond to the death of a loved one. If you recall, in the movie Max chose isolation until he was reminded that life was not to be wasted.	

business managment data bank

Question
	
46. (p. 94) __________
requires searching thoroughly for a complete range of alternatives, carefully
assessing each alternative, comparing one to another and then choosing or creating
the very best. 

A. Benchmarking

B. Maximizing

C. Minimizing

D. Satisficing

E. Optimalizing

 







47. (p. 95) Making
a decision that meets your goal is referred to as: 

A. Optimization

B. Satisficing

C. Maximizing

D. Minimizing

E. Acceptability

 







48. (p. 95) Pat,
the manager of a mental health facility, has a large number of decisions to be
made because several of her assistants are on vacation. One of the decisions
she has to make today is which paper clips to purchase for the clinic. She
looks at the office supply catalog and picks the first one she sees that is
priced acceptably. Pat is using ___________. 

A. Minimizing

B. Optimizing

C. Satisficing

D. Incompetent as a manager

E. Putting off the decision

 



2

 

49. (p. 95) Managers
who optimize their decisions will attempt to choose: 

A. The first minimally acceptable alternative

B. Among those alternatives with known results

C. The least expensive alternative

D. That alternative that produces the least conflict

E. An alternative that achieves the best possible balance among several
goals

 





 

50. (p. 95) To
maximize is to: 

A. Realize the largest possible production benefit

B. Involve as many people affected by the decision as possible in its
design

C. Realize the best possible outcome

D. Utilize groupthink as individual decisions

E. Generate many alternatives for evaluation

 

: 2

 







51. (p. 95) Steve
Hamilton of Hamilton Supply Co. needed to purchase a new hydraulic lift that
was high in quality and durability, yet low in price. The lift he decided upon
was neither the highest quality available, nor the lowest in price available,
yet it had a good combination of attributes. Steve's choice was: 

A. Maximizing

B. Satisficing

C. Optimizing

D. Minimizing

E. Programmed

 

: 2

 

52. (p. 96) Implementing
a decision must be planned carefully. Adequate planning requires all of the
following steps EXCEPT: 

A. Determining how things will look when the decision is fully operational

B. Order the steps necessary to achieve a fully operational decision

C. List the resources and activities needed to implement the decision

D. Allow employees to take on responsibility once the implementation has
begun

E. All of the above are correct

 



2

 

53. (p. 96) The
final stage in the decision-making process is: 

A. Anticipating the results

B. Diagnosing the problem

C. Evaluating alternatives

D. Criteria analysis

E. Evaluating the decision

 







54. (p. 97) Negative
feedback received during the final evaluation of the decision indicates: 

A. The decision was a bad one

B. Implementation will require more time, resources, effort or thought

C. The manager may have to begin the process all over again

D. Any of the above may be possible

E. None of the above may be possible

 



 

55. (p. 98) Vigilance
in decision making means that 

A. The manager closely watches over those responsible for implementation

B. The manager has thoroughly completed all stages in the decision making
process

C. The manager has been monitored during the decision making process

D. The employees monitor the implementation carefully

E. The employees have been monitored relative to the utility of the
decision

 

: 3

 

56. (p. 100) Managers'
faulty thought processes that can lead companies to failure include: 

A. I must consult others for decision making

B. E-commerce is expensive and difficult

C. We must make a profit to survive

D. Weigh short-term costs and benefits more heavily than long-term

E. All of the above are correct

 



3

 







57. (p. 100) Among the
faulty decision processes used by corporate executives are all of the following
EXCEPT:

A. Illusion
of control

B. Using groups to make decision

C. Framing effects

D. Discounting the future

E. Acting too slowly

 

3



58. (p. 100) Psychological
bias in decision making refers to:

A. The
effect that a person's psychological capabilities have upon the decisions they
must make under pressure

B. What happens when a decision maker must balance the preferences of many
interested parties, diluting effectiveness

C. The conflict that results from too many people involved with making a
decision

D. The inability to be objective when gathering, evaluating and applying
information for decision making

E. The fact that people are motivated by a need for power which clouds
their decision making capabilities

 



3

 







59. (p. 100) The
psychological bias known as "illusion of control" refers to: 

A. A belief that you have ultimate control and cannot make a poor decision

B. A belief that you can influence events even when you have no control
over what will happen

C. A belief that you have no control and so you don't put any effort into
the decision

D. A belief that some unknown person actually has the control and is
waiting for you to make a poor decision

E. A lack of confidence in your ability to gain control

 





 

60. (p. 100) Gambling
is an example of which of the following psychological biases? 

A. Illusion of control

B. Framing effects

C. Discounting the future

D. Time pressure

E. Social realities

 







61. (p. 100) Illusion
of control, discounting the future and framing effects are all examples
of: 

A. Social realities

B. Psychological biases

C. Rationality

D. Vigilance

E. Time pressures

 







62. (p. 100) The
way in which the alternatives to a decision are stated or phrased may have an
impact on which alternative is chosen. Varying alternatives can be presented in
a more favorable or less favorable way, affecting the decision. This is
referred to as: 

A. Framing effects

B. Phrasing effects

C. Fraud effects

D. Flamboyancy effect

E. Fracture effects

 



3

 

63. (p. 100) Discounting
the future refers to: 

A. Valuing long-term benefits at the cost of short-term benefits

B. Underestimating the long-term effects

C. Underestimating the short-term effects

D. Valuing short-term benefits at the cost of long-term benefits

E. None of the above

 

: 3

 

64. (p. 100) Pearl
Jam made a public statement that they had decided not to book any concerts
through Ticketmaster as an objection to the virtual monopoly Ticketmaster has
on the industry. The initial strong public support has been followed by fewer
concerts, lower revenues, less overall public exposure and more hassles for the
band. In retrospect, the band's decision seems to have: 

A. Been improperly framed

B. Been socially irresponsible

C. Discounted the future

D. Psychological conflict

E. Involved too many conflicting groups

 



3

 







65. (p. 100) Students
who don't study, dieters who sneak dessert and working people who take the
afternoon off when they really need to work are all examples of which
psychological bias? 

A. Illusion of control

B. Framing effects

C. Discounting the future

D. Time pressures

E. Social realities

 

: 3

 

66. (p. 101) Government
budget deficits are partly explained by: 

A. Illusion of control

B. Framing effects

C. Discounting the future

D. Time pressures

E. Social realities

 
	

Law question data bank

Question
	
394.

Distributions by a corporation to its shareholders are presumed to be a return
of capital unless the parties can prove otherwise.





a.
True

b. False







395. 

A distribution from a corporation will be taxable to the recipient shareholders
only to the extent of the corporation’s E & P.





a.
True

b. False







396. 3 

Distributions that are not dividends are a return of capital and decrease the
shareholder’s basis. Once basis is reduced to zero, any excess is taxed as a
capital gain.





a.
True

b. False







397. 4 

Cash distributions received from a corporation with a positive balance in
accumulated E & P at the beginning of the year will be taxed as dividend
income.





a.
True

b. False







398. 5 

A distribution in excess of E & P is treated as capital gain by shareholders.





a.
True

b. False







399. 6 

The terms “earnings and profits” and “retained earnings” are identical in
meaning.





a.
True

b. False







400. 7 

To determine E & P, some (but not all) previously excluded income items are
added back to taxable income.





a.
True

b. False







401. 8 

When computing E & P, taxable income is not adjusted for additional
first-year depreciation.





a.
True

b. False







402. 9 

When computing current E & P, taxable income is not adjusted for the
deferred gain in a § 1031 like-kind exchange.





a.
True

b. False







403. CHAPTER
5—10 

An increase in the LIFO recapture amount must be added to taxable income to
determine E & P.





a.
True

b. False







404. CHAPTER
5—11 

Use of MACRS cost recovery when computing taxable income does not require an E
& P adjustment.





a.
True

b. False







405. CHAPTER
5—12 

When a corporation makes an installment sale, for E & P purposes the
realized gain is recognized in the year of sale.





a.
True

b. False







406. CHAPTER
5—13 

A corporation borrows money to purchase State of Texas bonds. The interest on
the loan has no impact on either taxable income or current E & P.





a.
True

b. False







407. CHAPTER
5—14 

Federal income tax paid in the current year must be subtracted from taxable
income to determine E & P.





a.
True

b. False







408. CHAPTER
5—15 

When computing E & P, an adjustment to taxable income is necessary for any
domestic production activities deduction.





a.
True

b. False







409. CHAPTER
5—16 

Nondeductible meal and entertainment expenses must be subtracted from taxable
income to determine current E & P.





a.
True

b. False







410. CHAPTER
5—17 

The dividends received deduction is added back to taxable income to determine E
& P.





a.
True

b. False







411. CHAPTER
5—18 

A realized gain from an involuntary conversion under § 1033 that is not
recognized for income tax purposes has no effect on E & P.





a.
True

b. False







412. CHAPTER
5—19 

In the current year, Pink Corporation has a § 179 expense of $80,000. As a
result, next year, taxable income
must be decreased by $16,000 to determine current E & P.





a.
True

b. False







413. CHAPTER
5—20 

Any loss in current E & P must be treated as occurring ratably during the
year.





a.
True

b. False







414. CHAPTER
5—21 

When current E & P has a deficit and accumulated E & P is positive, the
two accounts are netted at the date of the distribution. If a positive balance
results, the distribution is a dividend to the extent of the balance.





a.
True

b. False







415. CHAPTER
5—22 

When current E & P is positive and accumulated E & P has a deficit
balance, the two accounts are netted for dividend determination purposes.





a.
True

b. False







416. CHAPTER
5—23 

Regardless of any deficit in current E & P, distributions during the year
are taxed as dividends to the extent of accumulated E & P.





a.
True

b. False







417. CHAPTER
5—24 

Corporate distributions are presumed to be paid out of E & P and are
treated as dividends unless the parties to the transaction can show otherwise.





a.
True

b. False







418. CHAPTER
5—25 

Dividends paid to shareholders who hold both long and short positions do not
qualify for the reduced tax rate available to individuals in certain years.





a.
True

b. False







419. CHAPTER
5—26 

Dividends taxed as ordinary income are considered investment income for
purposes of the investment interest expense limitation.





a.
True

b. False







420. CHAPTER
5—27 

Certain dividends from foreign corporations can be qualified dividends for
purposes of the 15% rate available to individuals.





a.
True

b. False







421. CHAPTER
5—28 

During the year, Blue Corporation distributes land to its sole shareholder. If
the fair market value of the land is less than its adjusted basis, Blue will
recognize a loss on the distribution.





a.
True

b. False







422. CHAPTER
5—29 

In certain circumstances, the amount of dividend income recognized by a
shareholder from a property distribution is not reduced by the amount of
liability assumed by a shareholder.





a.
True

b. False







423. CHAPTER
5—30 

Property distributed by a corporation as a dividend is subject to a liability
in excess of its basis. For purposes of determining gain on the distribution,
the basis of the property is treated as being not less than the amount of
liability.





a.
True

b. False







424. CHAPTER
5—31 

A corporation that distributes a property dividend must reduce its E & P by
the adjusted basis of the property less any liability on the property.





a.
True

b. False







425. CHAPTER
5—32 

Under certain circumstances, a distribution can generate (or add to) a deficit
in E & P.





a.
True

b. False







426. CHAPTER
5—33 

Constructive dividends do not need to satisfy the legal requirements for a
dividend as set forth by applicable state law.





a.
True

b. False







427. CHAPTER
5—34 

Constructive dividends have no effect on a distributing corporation’s E &
P.





a.
True

b. False







428. CHAPTER
5—35 

If a stock dividend is taxable, the shareholder’s basis in the newly received
shares is equal to the fair market value of the shares received in the
distribution.





a.
True

b. False







429. CHAPTER
5—36 

A corporate shareholder that receives a constructive dividend cannot apply a
dividends received deduction to the distribution.





a.
True

b. False







430. CHAPTER
5—37 

If a distribution of stock rights is taxable and their fair market value is
less than 15 percent of the value of the old stock, then either a zero basis or
a portion of the old stock basis may be assigned to the rights, at the
shareholder’s option.





a.
True

b. False







431. CHAPTER
5—38 

A pro rata distribution of nonconvertible preferred stock to common
shareholders is not generally taxable.





a.
True

b. False







432. CHAPTER
5—39 

The rules used to determine the taxability of stock dividends also apply to
distributions of stock rights.





a.
True

b. False







433. 394.

Distributions by a corporation to its shareholders are presumed to be a return
of capital unless the parties can prove otherwise.





a.
True

b. False