Search and Sell : In today’s vitual

Search and Sell : In today’s vitual

Question

Search and Sell : In today's vitual environment, marketing a brand is even more competitive than ever, search engine marketing is necessary to help create brand awarness in the vitual market place. One concept known as Search Engine Marketing helps increa

Consider one of your favorite brands and how it uses the marketing space. Maybe the brand or company uses banner advertising, social media or even links on pages to its website to communicate to its customers.

1.How does this brand advertise to its target customers?

2. Name one advertising venue that would help this brand create more brand awarness.

200-300 words and references.

FIFO accounting

FIFO accounting

Question Jason Archer is the CEO of JCPenney (a U.S. retailer). Because Jason's bonus is based on the company's earnings, he has directed the controller to use FIFO as the inventory costing method. Jason did not tell the controller his real reason for the directive; instead, he stated that he thought FIFO better reflected the actual flow of inventory costs.
Please review the following links and then answer the questions.
• http://www.journalofaccountancy.com/Issues/2002/Jun/UseBest PracticesInExecutiveCompensationPlans.htm
• http://www.ur.umich.edu/0304/Jan19_04/10.shtml
• http://www.investopedia.com/articles/stocks/07/executive_ compensation.asp
• http://ir.jcpenney.com/phoenix.zhtml?c=70528&p=irol-irHome
• http://www.searsholdings.com/invest/financial_info.htm
Questions
1. Jason's decision to select FIFO appropriate? Is it ethical? Is Jason wrong if this will help the company and also benefit him too?

2. What are some of the pitfalls of a company basing a manager’s or CEO’s compensation on the company’s earnings?
3. Using the links provided for JCPenney and Sears (a U.S. retailer), determine the inventory turnover ratio for the companies. What does this ratio tell you about these companies? How do the companies compare?
Using the links provided for JCPenney and Sears, calculate the number of days in inventory for the companies. What does this ratio tell you about these companies? How do the companies compare? Discussion
Some TIPS!! sounds like companies can just change inventory costing methods whenever they want, which we know they can't do. So don't let that throw you off here, just assume for the time being that they can. The main issue on this Discussion is upper management making decisions that impact themselves as well as the company. So give some thought on the problems this might cause. And don't forget to calculate the inventory turnover ratios for both Sears and Penney's. Our readings give a formula for this calculation and you can also find the formula on the internet. There are really four questions that need to be answered for this Discussion. The formatting get messed up and there are only three numbered but the last two lines on Penney's and Sears is really the fourth question. So be sure to answer all four

Chapter 6 Managing Employee Separations, Downsizing, and Outplacement

Chapter 6 Managing Employee Separations, Downsizing, and Outplacement

Question

112. Comments made by exiting employees at an exit interview are confidential, except in cases where they may concern legal issues.

113. Interestingly enough, employee separations can actually stimulate innovation.

114. A quit and a retirement are similar types of employee separations since both are initiated by the employee.

115. Employers can force an employee to retire if the employee is 65 years of age or older.

116. Recent studies have shown that 80% of voluntary separations are unavoidable.

117. Involuntary separation results from one of two conditions: 1) economic necessity or 2) a poor fit between the employee and the organization.

118. Rightsizing is simply a euphemism for downsizing.

119. Early retirement programs generally are offered by a business for only a short period of time and consist of financial incentives to encourage senior employees to retire earlier than they had planned.

120. Early retirement programs have proven to be almost flawless ways to make small reductions in a firm’s workforce.

121. A firm that tells employees that if they don’t take early retirement they may still lose their jobs due to future layoffs, may be open to age discrimination charges.

122. A firm’s overall HR strategy influences its employee workforce reduction strategy.

123. Generally, the first alternative to layoffs that companies use to reduce their labor costs is to redesign existing jobs.

124. Changes in job design may include: job sharing, rings of defense, bumping, and job relocation.

125. A company can save up to 20% of its payroll during lows in its business cycle by instituting a profit-sharing compensation program.

126. WARN requires employers with 60 or more employees to give 100 days’ warning of layoffs of more than 10% of its employees.

127. One of the most commonly used lay-off criterion is job seniority.

128. Basing a layoff on performance can be a legal hazard for an employer if the employee’s performance has not been well documented over a period of time.

129. In a termination meeting, a manager should interject personal remarks and talk about how valued the employee was in order to soften the blow of job loss.

130. Companies should communicate the reasons for a layoff and provide some emotional support to the survivors of a layoff in order to help them manage their layoff stress.

131. In order to reassure surviving employees of recent layoff information, they should be informed of the reasons for the layoff and how it occurred.


132. An important goal of outplacement services for laid-off workers is to help them remain productive, pending their layoff.

133. Job-search assistance and emotional support are often two functions of a business’ outplacement services.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

134. The termination of an employee’s membership in an organization is referred to as _______.

135. The rate of employee separations in an organization is referred to as _______.

136. The purpose of a(n) _______ is to find out the reasons why the employee is leaving or to provide counseling and/or assistance in finding a new job.

137. A program in which companies help their departing employees find jobs more rapidly by providing them with training in job-search skills is called _______.

138. _______ is a separation that occurs when an employee decides, for personal or professional reasons, to end the relationship with the employer.

139. A separation that occurs when an employer decides to terminate its relationship with an employee due to economic necessity or a poor fit between the employee and the organization is called _______.

140. _______ is a company strategy to reduce the scale and scope of it business in order to improve the company’s financial performance.

141. The process of reorganizing a company’s employees to improve their efficiency is referred to as _______.

142. _______ is an employment policy designed to reduce the company’s workforce by not refilling job vacancies that are created by turnover.

143. _______ is an employment policy designed to reduce the company’s workforce by not hiring any new employees into the company.

144. A federal law requiring U.S. employers with 100 or more employees to give 60 days’ advance notice to employees who will be laid off as a result of a plant closing or a mass separation of 50 or more workers is the _______.


REFLECTIVE SUBMISSION

REFLECTIVE SUBMISSION

REFLECTIVE SUBMISSION

Order Description Describe an event that occurred in a project context that provides an example of your preferred Honey and Mumford Learning Style OR dominant Belbin team profile. This is a reflective submission and is to be written in the first person to a professional standard.

Question_CHAP1_15Dec_6th

Question_CHAP1_15Dec_6th

Question

201. Which of the following organizations would most likely be the first to adopt the marketing concept?

A) a Canadian producer of textile equipment.

B) a steel producer.

C) a group of dentists in Dallas.

D) a national manufacturer of snack foods.

E) a bank in San Francisco.

202. The marketing concept was first accepted by:

A) consumer products manufacturers.

B) Internet retailers.

C) service industries.

D) producers of industrial commodities.

E) all firms equally.

203. The marketing concept can be applied by:

A) a nurses association.

B) cosmetic manufacturers.

C) nonprofit hospitals.

D) national parks.

E) all of the above.

204. The marketing concept can be applied by:

A) nonprofit hospitals.

B) symphony orchestras.

C) private universities.

D) manufacturers of consumer products.

E) All of the above.

205. Which of the following is the best example of the marketing concept in action?

A) A product manager tells her sales force "the inventory in the warehouse must be sold if we are to make a profit, so redouble your sales efforts."

B) A manufacturer of industrial chemicals adapts its formulas and goes after the big consumer cleaning market.

C) A cleaning supplies firm learns that many consumers are having trouble hiring maids--so it develops a plan to offer customers complete house cleaning services.

D) An Internet retailer finds that shoppers are abandoning their shopping carts before checking out, so it promotes its $10 discount on each customer's first purchase.

E) A student group wants to hold an awards banquet, so it buys Krispy Kreme donuts and sells them to friends who want to help the club achieve its objectives.

206. A public utility that has adopted the marketing concept would be most likely to

A) set up a special service to help consumers reduce expensive peak-hours energy consumption.

B) lower prices until almost all consumers felt that prices were fair.

C) advertise its "public service role" to improve its image with the public.

D) use email to send customers a personal apology if a blackout were to occur.

E) None of the above.

207. A local symphony group that has adopted the marketing concept would be most likely to

A) lower ticket prices until all its concerts sell out.

B) advertise so consumers know about the quality of the musicians who play in its concerts.

C) find out what kind of music local residents want to hear.

D) use only its best musicians to handle solo performances.

E) All of the above.

208. Which of the following illustrates the marketing concept in action?

A) Three pediatricians set up a group practice--so that at least one is always available for emergencies.

B) Bank ATMs that dispense cash are placed in fast-food restaurants.

C) The Nevada auto registration office mails license tags to people, to reduce inconvenient waiting in line.

D) A veterinarian has office hours in the evening to see pets whose owners must work during the day.

E) All of the above.

209. Which of the following illustrates the marketing concept in action?

A) A young lawyer gives free legal advice to poor people.

B) A local police department organizes a "community crime watch" program in a neighborhood that has had many burglaries.

C) Several lawyers set up a group practice--so that the costs of the office and equipment can be shared.

D) All of the above.

E) None of the above has anything to do with the marketing concept.

210. A firm with a marketing orientation is MOST likely to:

A) view advertising as an unnecessary expense.

B) recognize that effective advertising is the key to sales.

C) advertise how a product meets customers' needs.

D) focus advertising on product features.

E) not use any advertising.

|

211. Which of the following is NOT likely to be found in a company with a marketing orientation?

A) The company sells whatever it can make.

B) The company sees customer credit as a service.

C) The company designs its packaging as a selling tool.

D) The company uses marketing research to see if it is satisfying its customers.

E) The company focuses on locating new opportunities.

|

212. Which of the following statements about customer value is true?

A) Customer value is the difference between the benefits a customer sees from a market offering and the costs of obtaining those benefits.

B) The greater the competition, the less important customer value is.

C) The sure way to achieve high customer value is to offer a lower price.

D) It is the manager's view of customer value that matters, not the customer's.

E) None of the above is true.

213. A major limitation of the customer value idea is that:

A) It can't be applied in competitive situations.

B) It considers price but not other elements of the marketing mix.

C) It applies to goods but not services.

D) It's emphasis on what the customer sees as the positive things about a marketing mix means that the negatives are likely to be ignored.

E) None of the above is a limitation.

214. Customer value typically would NOT be impacted by a marketing manager's decisions concerning:

A) product.

B) place.

C) promotion.

D) price.

E) Any of the above might impact customer value.

215. Given the nature of their work, which of the following should have a marketing orientation?

A) Girl Scouts of America.

B) Dallas-Fort Worth Symphony.

C) American Cancer Society.

D) All of the above.

E) None of the above.

216. Nonprofit organizations

A) do not have a profit objective, so the marketing concept does not apply.

B) can benefit by adopting the marketing concept.

C) are fundamentally different than business firms--so they should embrace a production orientation rather than a marketing orientation.

D) do not need to be concerned with marketing activities.

E) none of the above.

|

217. Which of the following statements about nonprofits is false?

A) Marketing is being more widely accepted by nonprofit organizations.

B) The marketing concept is as important for nonprofit organizations as it is for business firms.

C) In nonprofit organizations as in business firms, support comes from satisfied customers.

D) A nonprofit organization does not measure profit in the same way as a firm.

E) The marketing concept provides focus in both business firms and nonprofit organizations.

|

218. Which of the following is TRUE about the micro-macro dilemma?

A) What is good for some producers and consumers may not be good for society as a whole.

B) Marketing people cannot agree on whether marketing should be viewed as individual activities or a social process.

C) In a multiproduct company, one product should not be emphasized over another.

D) Most people don't want much freedom of choice.

E) Middlemen facilitate exchange but they add to the cost of goods.

|

219. The term "micro-macro dilemma" means that:

A) most people are both producers and consumers.

B) marketing people cannot agree on whether marketing should be viewed as activities or as a social process.

C) macro-marketing is just a small part of a larger micro-marketing system.

D) the micro view ofmarketing is concerned with the flow of goods and services from producers to consumers--while the macro view is not.

E) what is "good" for some producers and consumers may not be good for society as a whole.

|

220. Trying to balance the interests of people who want to drink beer and the dangers of drunk driving is an example of:

A) the role of a central market.

B) subsistence marketing.

C) political action.

D) the macro-micro dilemma.

E) the exchange process in marketing.

221. Which of the following is an example of the micro-macro dilemma?

A) Disposable packages are convenient, but contribute to environmental problems.

B) Children like to ride bicycles, but accidents are common.

C) Sulfites help to keep restaurant salads looking fresh, but some people have a dangerous allergic reaction to sulfites.

D) All of the above.

E) A and C, but not B.

222. Which of the following is NOT an example of the micro-macro dilemma?

A) Many people like beer and wine, but drunk driving is a big social problem.

B) Some people like to eat a lot, but later feel guilty about eating too much.

C) A "good" lawnmower can be produced cheaply, but its price must be higher if its design must be safe for "ignorant" users.

D) A smoker may enjoy a cigar, but the smell can make other people sick.

E) Downhill snow skiing is fun, but really quite dangerous.

|

223. Which of the following is NOT an example of the micro-macro dilemma?

A) Having a dog or cat can teach a child responsibility, but add expenses to the family budget.

B) Some people like to smoke cigarettes, but the smell annoys many others.

C) Aluminum soft-drink cans are convenient, but expensive to pick up along the highway.

D) Nuclear power may reduce your fuel bill, but worry others.

E) Driving fast can be fun, but is hazardous to other people.

224. Which of the following is the BEST example of the micro-macro dilemma?

A) Many consumers buy imported cars, even though they say they like American cars better.

B) High performance cars are fun to drive but may be dangerous to others.

C) Buying an imported car may cost buyers more to buy now but may have better resale value later.

D) A fuel efficient car may cost more to buy but less to operate.

E) The economy may be growing, but many people still are not able to buy a new car.

225. Which of the following is the BEST example of the micro-macro dilemma?

A) Pepsi Blue sales went up, but total sales of all soft drinks went down.

B) A small group of loyal consumers really like RC Cola best, but most consumers don't like it at all.

C) The deposit on returnable soft drink bottles is about equal to the cost of the bottle.

D) Paper cups for soft-drinks are convenient, but they often end up as litter along the highway.

E) Snapple beverages are more popular in Texas than in the rest of the U.S.

226. A marketing manager made a speech in which he described his organization as having "really embraced the marketing concept over ten years ago." A critic in the audience argued that the manager didn't understand the "socially conscious" view of the marketing concept. Given the critic's argument, the marketing manager may work for:

A) a fruit processor.

B) the public library.

C) a firm that recycles aluminum cans.

D) a soap producer.

E) a motorcycle producer.

|

227. Concerning marketing ethics:

A) Individuals develop moral standards based on their own values.

B) Opinions about what is right or wrong vary from one society to another.

C) The prevailing practice of most businesspeople is to be fair and honest.

D) All of the above are true.

E) None of the above is true.

|

228. Which of the following criticisms focuses most directly on a macro view of marketing, rather than a micro view?

A) Products often wear out right after the warranty expires.

B) Much TV advertising is annoying.

C) Marketing exploits the poor and the uneducated.

D) Prices for very similar products vary a lot from store to store.

E) Door-to-door salespeople are trained to be pushy.

general business data bank

general business data bank

Question

24. What is a common consequence of early maturation for girls?

a. higher grades in school

b. high levels of leadership abilities

c. higher levels of conflict with parents

d. loyalty to friends

25. Which of the following does NOTcontribute to sleep deprivation during adolescence?

a. Adolescents are likely to stay up late at night doing homework.

b. Adolescents spend more time in deep sleep leaving them more tired during the day.

c. Many adolescents are in activities that involve before-school preparation.

d. High school tends to start earlier than middle and elementary schools.

26. Alex is in eighth grade and is getting a lot less sleep than he did in sixth and seventh grade because

he stays up late doing his homework and working on the computer. As a result, Alex is experiencing _____.

a. depressive symptoms

b. higher self esteem

c. higher grades

d. anorexia nervosa

27. One change in mental activity that occurs during early adolescence is that young people are able to _____.

a. generate hypotheses about events they have never perceived

b. generate perceptions based on fantasy principles

c. consciously experience changes in the brain

d. use motor behavior as the basis of planning activity

28. Which of the following is NOT one of the important changes in the brain that occurs during adolescence?

a. focused reduction of synapses

b. continuing myelination of nerve fibers

c. new developments in the prefrontal cortex

d. increase in the number of neurons

29. According to Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development that is attained in early adolescence is called __________________________.

a. information processing

b. formal operations

c. general intelligence

d. critical thinking

30. Which of the following is an important characteristic of formal operational thought?

a. the ability to think about themselves, other individuals, and their world in relativistic ways

b. the ability to use sensory and motor schemes to solve non-verbal problems

c. the ability to conform to the expectations of one's peers in guiding one's behavior

d. the ability to do trial and error problem solving

31. Which of the following is likely to be possible because one has attained formal operational thinking?

a. categorizing objects

b. solving conservation problems

c. doing complicated calculations

d. thinking about things changing in the future

32. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about formal operational thinking?

a. No new skills are required; there is a more complex intermingling of skills learned in previous stages.

b. It is best developed through rote learning of complex material.

c. New skills help the person anticipate the consequences of their actions.

d. It depends upon thoughts generated by remote associations to well-learned concepts.

33. The changes in conceptual development that occur during the early adolescent period can result in ______.

a. a less flexible, critical, and longitudinal view of the world

b. fewer creative ideas

c. greater belief in one's own ideas and relatively little understanding of others’ ideas

d. a more flexible, critical, and abstract view of the world

34. According to the text, egocentrism may best be described as ____________________.

a. an attitude children have that they are better than other people

b. a limited perspective a child displays at the beginning of each new phase of cognitive development

c. a feeling of self-admiration

d. a sense that one's own peer group is better than other peer groups


35. Which of the following best describes egocentrism in the early-adolescent period?

a. realizing that one's ideals are not shared by everyone

b. realizing that some people do not like you

c. an inability to recognize that others may not share one's own hypothetical system

d. an inability to identify one’s values or goals.

36. Bob, a high school junior, feels very strongly about the need for the protection of the environment. He realizes, however, that not everyone feels the same way he does. This is an example of which of the following?

a. egocentrism

b. decentering

c. conservation

d. narcissism

37. Adolescents may believe that their thoughts and feelings are unique; that no one else is thinking what they are thinking. Elkind referred to this as _______________.

a. a personal fable

b. a contextual dilemma

c. cognitive dissonance

d. an imaginary audience

38. How is the idea of an imaginary audience related to adolescent egocentrism?

a. Adolescents believe their imaginary audience is unique.

b. Adolescents worry about having "stage fright."

c. Adolescents think that everyone is aware of and preoccupied by their thoughts.

d. Adolescents become shy when people give them too much attention.


39. Which of the following is a potential negative effect of egocentrism in early adolescence?

a. to become more sociable and outgoing

b. to become more flexible in considering alternative possibilities

c. to become overwhelmed by the intensity of one’s ideas and not accept evidence of a different point of view

d. to become less willing to commit antisocial acts

40. Which of the following is a social environmental factor that promotes formal operational thought?

a. watching TV

b. participation in a variety of role relationships

c. withdrawing from peer interaction

d. dropping out of high school

41. As a high school freshman, Carl has become part of a friendship group that involves students from a wide variety of family backgrounds. This is having an impact on his cognitive development. What is the likely outcome?

a. increased egocentrism

b. increased ability to think in a relativistic way about self, others, and the world

c. decreasing likelihood of a successful resolution of group identity

d. decreasing capacity to think logically about the future


42. According to research on formal operational thought,

b. most 13 year olds used formal operational strategies on most problems

c. formal operational thought is observed consistently by adults in all cultures.

d. mature scientific reasoning does not require formal operational thought

d. most 15 year olds do not use formal operational strategies on all problems

43. Which of the following is a criticism of formal operational reasoning as a stage of cognitive development?

a. It does not describe the sensory based reasoning of which adolescents are capable.

b. It does not deal with the ability of adolescents to raise hypotheses about an unknown future.

c. It is not broad enough to encompass the many dimensions along which cognitive functioning changes in adolescence.

d. It includes too many dimensions such as the biological basis and social context of reasoning.

44. The kind of reasoning associated with diplomacy, psychotherapy, and spiritual leadership is called _______.

a. formal reasoning

b. emotional reasoning

c. scientific reasoning

d. postformal reasoning

45. The interdependence of emotion and cognition may result in .

a. improved management of emotional expression

b. overintellectualizing the feelings of others

c. denial of one’s emotional complexity

d. attempts to defend against the behavior of family and friends

46. Larson and Lampman-Petraitis gave electronic paging devices to monitor adolescents’ emotions. They found that adolescents experienced _____________________________.

a. frequent, sudden shifts from intense anger to intense joy

b. more positive emotions than younger children

c. more mildly negative emotions than younger children

d. an increase in variability of emotions with age

47. Which of the following is an example of how adolescent girls differ in their emotional responses from adolescent boys? Adolescent girls are ___________________.

a. more likely than boys to experience strong feelings of anger at others

b. more likely than boys to feel contemptuous of others

c. less likely than boys to experience restless irritability

d. more likely than boys to experience depression


48. Researchers have found that both boys and girls with more mature body shape report more thoughts and feelings that are related to .

a. obesity

b. love

c. aggression

d. depression


49. As adolescents become aware of a more differentiated array of emotions, boys are more likely to have a heightened awareness of new levels of negative emotions that focus on .

a. being crazy

b. internalizing

c. consequences

d. frustration and tension

50. After puberty, boys and girls show noticeably different levels of aggression. Problems that result from difficulties in managing aggression are known as .

a. externalizing problems

b. internalizing problems

c. defensive problems

d. turning against the self

accounts data bank

accounts data bank

Question

95. Assume a firm has a positive cash balance which is increasing annually. Why then is it important to analyze a statement of cash flows?




96. You need to analyze a firm's performance in relation to its peers. You can do this either by comparing the firms' balance sheets and income statements or by comparing the firms' ratios. If you only had time to use one means of comparison which method would you use and why?




97. In general, what does a high Tobin's Q value indicate and how reliable does that value tend to be?




98. What value does the PEG ratio provide to financial analysts?





99. What value can the price-sales ratio provide to financial managers that the price-earnings ratio cannot?




100. It is commonly recommended that the managers of a firm compare the performance of their firm to that of its peers. Increasingly, this is becoming a more difficult task. Explain some of the reasons why comparisons of this type can frequently be either difficult to perform or produce misleading results.




accounts data bank

accounts data bank

Question

24. Crisfield Company has two reportable segments, C and D. Segment C made $4,000,000 of sales to external customers and $400,000 of sales to other operating segments. Segment D, on the other hand, made sales of $8,000,000 to external customers and $1,600,000 of sales to other operating segments. Crisfield Company reported $13,200,000 of revenues on its consolidated income statement. What calculation below correctly determines whether Crisfield Company's reportable segments satisfy the 75% revenue test?
A. $14,000,000/$15,200,000
B. $14,000,000/$13,200,000
C. $12,000,000/$13,200,000
D. $12,000,000/$15,200,000


25. Zeus Corporation has determined that it has 15 reportable operating segments. In order to comply with the standard for segment disclosures, Zeus Corporation should do which of the following?
A. Report 10 reportable segments and disclose the remaining 5 segments as other operating segments.
B. Report 10 reportable segments by combining the most closely related segments.
C. Report 15 reportable segments as long as the 75 percent revenue test has been satisfied.
D. Report 12 reportable segments and show all other operating segments in a column labeled "Other Operating Segments."

26. FASB 131 requires certain disclosures about major customers. All of the following statements about those disclosures are true with the exception of which statement?
A. The identity of the segment reporting the revenue from a significant customer must be disclosed a footnote.
B. The amount of revenue from a significant customer must be disclosed in a footnote.
C. For applying the disclosure test a threshold of 10 percent of total revenues is mandated.
D. A local, state, or foreign government can be considered a major customer.

27. The management approach to the definition of segments for financial reporting expects a company to:
I. Report disaggregated information on the same organizational basis as used by the company's internal decision makers.
II. Report disaggregated information for at least ten segments.
A. I
B. II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II


28. Main Manufacturing Corporation reported consolidated revenues of $50,000,000 on its income statement for 2008. The management of the corporation identified 3 industry segments, M, N, and O. These segments had the following intersegment sales and transfers during 2008:
accounts   data bank
For Main Manufacturing Corporation, the revenue test would be satisfied if any of its industry segments had revenue equal to or greater than which of the following?
A. $7,400,000
B. $5,740,000
C. $5,000,000
D. $4,260,000

29. Stone Company reported $100,000,000 of revenues on its 2008 income statement. During the year ended December 31, 2008, Stone made sales of $8,000,000 to external customers in Western Europe. In addition, Stone made sales of $10,000,000 to the U.S. government and $4,000,000 of sales to various state governments. In the footnotes to its financial statements for 2008, in reporting enterprisewide disclosures, Stone is required to disclose:
accounts   data bank
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D