general business data bank

general business data bank

Question

1. According to Jung, one's collective unconscious contains

a. archetypes.

b. repressed or forgotten information.

c. ancestral memories.

d. the id and the superego.

2. Rosalind is an impulsive child who seldom waits for her turn when playing with other children. Rosalind's

father is also an impulsive individual who often seems to act before he thinks. The theorist who would

MOST likely suggest that Rosalind has learned to be impulsive from watching her father is

a. B. F. Skinner.

b. Sigmund Freud.

c. Carl Rogers.

d. Albert Bandura.

3. What was the age differential between Freud and his mother?

a. 18 years c. 27 years

b. 20 years d. 42 years

4. Skinner would explain why one student responds positively to receiving a B on a test while another student

responds negatively to a B by noting that

a. one student has a stronger superego than the other.

b. one student has more self-efficacy than the other.

c. the students have different personality traits.

d. the students have different histories of reinforcement and punishment.

5. Fiona has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Based on the physical symptoms listed in your text, you

should expect that Fiona will show evidence of

a. amenorrhea and low blood pressure.

b. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias.

c. cardiac arrhythmias and osteoporosis.

d. dental problems and elevated blood pressure.

6. Abraham Maslow called the need to fulfill one's potential the need for

a. affiliation.

b. achievement.

c. self-actualization.

d. power.

7. According to the five-factor model of personality, people who score high in ____ are characterized as

anxious, hostile, self-conscious, insecure, and vulnerable.

a. neuroticism

b. extraversion

c. conscientiousness

d. openness to experience

8. The self or self-concept is the central focus of

a. Roger's person-centered theory.

b. Maslow's theory of self-actualization.

c. Adler's individual psychology.

d. Bandura's social-cognitive theory.9. According to the evolutionary approach to personality, humans have evolved special sensitivity to variations

in the tendency to be reliable and ethical, which is closely associated with which of the following Big Five

personality traits?

a. Neuroticism

b. Extraversion

c. Agreeableness

d. Conscientiousness

10. Both Carl Jung and Alfred Adler were especially critical of Freud's emphasis on

a. the influence of childhood experiences.

b. sexuality.

c. the unconscious.

d. defense mechanisms.

11. Freud believed that smoking, overeating, and habitual gum chewing could result from fixation in the ____

stage.

a. genital

b. oral

c. anal

d. phallic

12. An unwanted thought that repeatedly intrudes upon an individual's consciousness is called

a. a delusion.

b. an obsession.

c. a compulsion.

d. a hallucination.

13. The sickly child who goes on to become a forceful, physically active adult is engaging in what Adler called

a. compensation.

b. displacement.

c. fixation.

d. regression.

14. Explanations concerning the etiology of which dissociative disorder are MOST controversial?

a. Dissociative fugue

b. Ddissociative depressive disorder

c. Dissociative identity disorder

d. Dissociative amnesia

15. The MOST common psychological disorders in the United States are

a. schizophrenic disorders.

b. personality disorders.

c. mood disorders.

d. substance use disorders.

16. The stage of psychosexual development that runs from approximately ages three to six is

a. latency.

b. phallic.

c. genital.

d. oral.

17. The majority view among psychologists today is that most aspects of personality are derived from ____

basic traits.

a. 5

b. 16

c. approximately 50

d. over 4,50018. Cari often has temper tantrums and pouts when she can't have her own

Question_Doc10_15Dec

Question_Doc10_15Dec

Question

8-1. A 30-year bond with a face value of $1000 has a coupon rate of 5.5%, with semiannual payments.

a. What is the coupon payment for this bond?

b. Draw the cash flows for the bond on a timeline.

8-2. Assume that a bond will make payments every six months as shown on the following timeline (using six-month periods):

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a. What is the maturity of the bond (in years)?

b. What is the coupon rate (in percent)?

c. What is the face value?

Question_Doc10_15Dec8-3. The following table summarizes prices of various default-free, zero-coupon bonds (expressed as a percentage of face value):

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a. Compute the yield to maturity for each bond.

b. Plot the zero-coupon yield curve (for the first five years).

c. Is the yield curve upward sloping, downward sloping, or flat?

8-4. Suppose the current zero-coupon yield curve for risk-free bonds is as follows:

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a. What is the price per $100 face value of a two-year, zero-coupon, risk-free bond?

b. What is the price per $100 face value of a four-year, zero-coupon, risk-free bond?

c. What is the risk-free interest rate for a five-year maturity?

8-5. In the box in Section 8.1, Bloomberg.com reported that the three-month Treasury bill sold for a price of $100.002556 per $100 face value. What is the yield to maturity of this bond, expressed as an EAR?

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8-6. Suppose a 10-year, $1000 bond with an 8% coupon rate and semiannual coupons is trading for a price of $1034.74.

a. What is the bond’s yield to maturity (expressed as an APR with semiannual compounding)?

b. If the bond’s yield to maturity changes to 9% APR, what will the bond’s price be?

8-7. Suppose a five-year, $1000 bond with annual coupons has a price of $900 and a yield to maturity of 6%. What is the bond’s coupon rate?

8-8. The prices of several bonds with face values of $1000 are summarized in the following table:

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For each bond, state whether it trades at a discount, at par, or at a premium.

8-9. Explain why the yield of a bond that trades at a discount exceeds the bond’s coupon rate.

8-10. Suppose a seven-year, $1000 bond with an 8% coupon rate and semiannual coupons is trading with a yield to maturity of 6.75%.

a. Is this bond currently trading at a discount, at par, or at a premium? Explain.

b. If the yield to maturity of the bond rises to 7% (APR with semiannual compounding), what price will the bond trade for?

8-11. Suppose that General Motors Acceptance Corporation issued a bond with 10 years until maturity, a face value of $1000, and a coupon rate of 7% (annual payments). The yield to maturity on this bond when it was issued was 6%.

a. What was the price of this bond when it was issued?

b. Assuming the yield to maturity remains constant, what is the price of the bond immediately before it makes its first coupon payment?

c. Assuming the yield to maturity remains constant, what is the price of the bond immediately after it makes its first coupon payment?

8-12. Suppose you purchase a 10-year bond with 6% annual coupons. You hold the bond for four years, and sell it immediately after receiving the fourth coupon. If the bond’s yield to maturity was 5% when you purchased and sold the bond,

a. What cash flows will you pay and receive from your investment in the bond per $100 face value?

b. What is the internal rate of return of your investment?

8-13. Consider the following bonds:

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a. What is the percentage change in the price of each bond if its yield to maturity falls from 6% to 5%?

b. Which of the bonds A–D is most sensitive to a 1% drop in interest rates from 6% to 5% and why? Which bond is least sensitive? Provide an intuitive explanation for your answer.

Question_Doc10_15Dec

Question_Doc10_15Dec8-14. Suppose you purchase a 30-year, zero-coupon bond with a yield to maturity of 6%. You hold the bond for five years before selling it.

a. If the bond’s yield to maturity is 6% when you sell it, what is the internal rate of return of your investment?

b. If the bond’s yield to maturity is 7% when you sell it, what is the internal rate of return of your investment?

c. If the bond’s yield to maturity is 5% when you sell it, what is the internal rate of return of your investment?

d. Even if a bond has no chance of default, is your investment risk free if you plan to sell it before it matures? Explain.

.

8-15. Suppose you purchase a 30-year Treasury bond with a 5% annual coupon, initially trading at par. In 10 years’ time, the bond’s yield to maturity has risen to 7% (EAR).

a. If you sell the bond now, what internal rate of return will you have earned on your investment in the bond?

b. If instead you hold the bond to maturity, what internal rate of return will you earn on your investment in the bond?

c. Is comparing the IRRs in (a) versus (b) a useful way to evaluate the decision to sell the bond? Explain.

8-16. Suppose the current yield on a one-year, zero coupon bond is 3%, while the yield on a five-year, zero coupon bond is 5%. Neither bond has any risk of default. Suppose you plan to invest for one year. You will earn more over the year by investing in the five-year bond as long as its yield does not rise above what level?

8-17. What is the price today of a two-year, default-free security with a face value of $1000 and an annual coupon rate of 6%? Does this bond trade at a discount, at par, or at a premium?

Question_Doc10_15Dec

8-18. What is the price of a five-year, zero-coupon, default-free security with a face value of $1000?

8-19. What is the price of a three-year, default-free security with a face value of $1000 and an annual coupon rate of 4%? What is the yield to maturity for this bond?

8-20. What is the maturity of a default-free security with annual coupon payments and a yield to maturity of 4%? Why?

8-21. Consider a four-year, default-free security with annual coupon payments and a face value of $1000 that is issued at par. What is the coupon rate of this bond?

8-22. Consider a five-year, default-free bond with annual coupons of 5% and a face value of $1000.

a. Without doing any calculations, determine whether this bond is trading at a premium or at a discount. Explain.

b. What is the yield to maturity on this bond?

c. If the yield to maturity on this bond increased to 5.2%, what would the new price be?

8-23. Prices of zero-coupon, default-free securities with face values of $1000 are summarized in the following table:

Question_Doc10_15Dec

Suppose you observe that a three-year, default-free security with an annual coupon rate of 10% and a face value of $1000 has a price today of $1183.50. Is there an arbitrage opportunity? If so, show specifically how you would take advantage of this opportunity. If not, why not?

8-24. Assume there are four default-free bonds with the following prices and future cash flows:

Question_Doc10_15Dec

Do these bonds present an arbitrage opportunity? If so, how would you take advantage of this opportunity? If not, why not?

Question_Doc10_15Dec8-25. Suppose you are given the following information about the default-free, coupon-paying yield curve:

Question_Doc10_15Dec

a. Use arbitrage to determine the yield to maturity of a two-year, zero-coupon bond.

b. What is the zero-coupon yield curve for years 1 through 4?

8-26. Explain why the expected return of a corporate bond does not equal its yield to maturity.

8-27. Grummon Corporation has issued zero-coupon corporate bonds with a five-year maturity. Investors believe there is a 20% chance that Grummon will default on these bonds. If Grummon does default, investors expect to receive only 50 cents per dollar they are owed. If investors require a 6% expected return on their investment in these bonds, what will be the price and yield to maturity on these bonds?

8-28. The following table summarizes the yields to maturity on several one-year, zero-coupon securities:

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a. What is the price (expressed as a percentage of the face value) of a one-year, zero-coupon corporate bond with a AAA rating?

b. What is the credit spread on AAA-rated corporate bonds?

c. What is the credit spread on B-rated corporate bonds?

d. How does the credit spread change with the bond rating? Why?

.

8-29. Andrew Industries is contemplating issuing a 30-year bond with a coupon rate of 7% (annual coupon payments) and a face value of $1000. Andrew believes it can get a rating of A from Standard and Poor’s. However, due to recent financial difficulties at the company, Standard and Poor’s is warning that it may downgrade Andrew Industries bonds to BBB. Yields on A-rated, long-term bonds are currently 6.5%, and yields on BBB-rated bonds are 6.9%.

a. What is the price of the bond if Andrew maintains the A rating for the bond issue?

b. What will the price of the bond be if it is downgraded?

Question_Doc10_15Dec8-30. HMK Enterprises would like to raise $10 million to invest in capital expenditures. The company plans to issue five-year bonds with a face value of $1000 and a coupon rate of 6.5% (annual payments). The following table summarizes the yield to maturity for five-year (annualpay) coupon corporate bonds of various ratings:

Question_Doc10_15Dec

a. Assuming the bonds will be rated AA, what will the price of the bonds be?

b. How much total principal amount of these bonds must HMK issue to raise $10 million today, assuming the bonds are AA rated? (Because HMK cannot issue a fraction of a bond, assume that all fractions are rounded to the nearest whole number.)

c. What must the rating of the bonds be for them to sell at par?

d. Suppose that when the bonds are issued, the price of each bond is $959.54. What is the likely rating of the bonds? Are they junk bonds?

8-31. A BBB-rated corporate bond has a yield to maturity of 8.2%. A U.S. Treasury security has a yield to maturity of 6.5%. These yields are quoted as APRs with semiannual compounding. Both bonds pay semiannual coupons at a rate of 7% and have five years to maturity.

a. What is the price (expressed as a percentage of the face value) of the Treasury bond?

b. What is the price (expressed as a percentage of the face value) of the BBB-rated corporate bond?

c. What is the credit spread on the BBB bonds?

8-32. The Isabelle Corporation rents prom dresses in its stores across the southern United States. It has just issued a five-year, zero-coupon corporate bond at a price of $74. You have purchased this bond and intend to hold it until maturity.

a. What is the yield to maturity of the bond?

b. What is the expected return on your investment (expressed as an EAR) if there is no chance of default?

c. What is the expected return (expressed as an EAR) if there is a 100% probability of default and you will recover 90% of the face value?

d. What is the expected return (expressed as an EAR) if the probability of default is 50%, the likelihood of default is higher in bad times than good times, and, in the case of default, you will recover 90% of the face value?

e. For parts (b–d), what can you say about the five-year, risk-free interest rate in each case?

Appendix

Problems A.1–A.4 refer to the following table:

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A.1.What is the forward rate for year 2 (the forward rate quoted today for an investment that begins in one year and matures in two years)?

A.2.What is the forward rate for year 3 (the forward rate quoted today for an investment that begins in two years and matures in three years)? What can you conclude about forward rates when the yield curve is flat?

.

A.3.What is the forward rate for year 5 (the forward rate quoted today for an investment that begins in four years and matures in five years)?

A.4.Suppose you wanted to lock in an interest rate for an investment that begins in one year and matures in five years. What rate would you obtain if there are no arbitrage opportunities?

A.5.Suppose the yield on a one-year, zero-coupon bond is 5%. The forward rate for year 2 is 4%, and the forward rate for year 3 is 3%. What is the yield to maturity of a zero-coupon bond that matures in three years?

general business data bank

general business data bank

Question

20. The cause and effect relationships among critical success factors are best captured in:

A. The balanced scorecard B. Business intelligence C. The value chain

D. The strategy map E. SWOT analysis


21. Which of the following types of organizations can most benefit from value chain analysis?

A. Service firms.

B. Not-for-profit organizations.

C. Manufacturing firms.

D. All types of organizations can benefit from value chain analysis.

22. Which of the following would not likely be a perspective of a balanced scorecard for a consumer products retailer?

A. Learning and innovation.

B. Internal processes.

C. Financial performance.

D. Customer.

E. The exploration of space.

23. Which of the following statements concerning value chain analysis is false?

A. The goal of value chain analysis is to find areas where a company can either add value or reduce cost.

B. The value chain focuses on the entire production process, as well as the sale of the product and service after the sale.

C. If a company cannot compete in a specific area of the value chain, it might consider the option of outsourcing that portion of the value chain to someone who can perform it better.

D. Throughout most industries, the most successful firms are the ones that operate within the entire value chain, thereby overseeing every aspect of the value chain for the customer.

24. Which of the following could be considered part of the value chain in a service firm?

A. Inspection of product.

B. Advertising.

C. Raw materials.

D. Customer service.

E. Advertising and customer service.

25. When performing value chain analysis, which of the following should a company not take into account?

general business data bankgeneral business data bank

A. The firm's competitive position.

B. Opportunities to reduce cost.

C. Possible opportunities where value can be added.

D. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats.

26. Both cost leadership and differentiated firms can improve on execution through:

A. Improved automation and a higher output of products.

B. Benchmarking and total quality management.

C. Cost cutting and downsizing of personnel.

D. Improvements in product development.

27. To increase profitability, technology companies such as IBM have shifted their strategic focus toward:

A. Increasing equipment sales.

B. Improving software applications.

C. Providing new and enhanced customer services.

D. Increased focus on research and development.

28. Which of the following is not a key benefit of the balanced scorecard (BSC)?

general business data bankgeneral business data bank

A. It provides a means for implementing strategy.

B. It provides an objective basis for determining each manager's compensation and advancement.

C. It provides a framework for the firm to achieve a desired organizational change in strategy.

D. It provides a baseline for how a firm's financial operations compare to competition within the industry.

29. A strategy map is:

A. A detailed flowchart outlining which firm managers are responsible for each implementation of a firm's strategy and when these implementations are to take place.

B. A cause and effect diagram of the relationships among the balanced scorecard perspectives to show how the achievement of critical success factors in each perspective affects the achievement of goals in other perspectives and the overall financial performance of the firm.

C. A framework for the firm to achieve a desired organizational change in strategy while mapping the successes of other firms within the industry.

D. A comprehensive framework of goals and measurable targets for executing those goals.

30. Sustainability is the balancing of short and long term goals in all three dimensions of the company's performance. Those three areas are:

A. Economic, social, and environmental.

B. Economic, social, and financial.

C. Economic, environmental, and political.

D. Social, environmental, and financial.

31. Over the past several years it has become increasingly important for firms to improve achievement towards their social and environmental responsibilities. What is the best way the management accountant can help the firm improve on sustainability?

A. Participate in programs of environmental organizations.

B. Develop and implement a legal staff and public relations staff for dealing with sustainability issues that may affect the firm.


C. Develop and implement a sustainability scorecard.

D. Risk management.

32. In terms of strategic cost management for not-for-profit organizations, which of the following is false?

A. Not-for-profit organizations can benefit from strategic cost management since they must prove their effectiveness and efficiency to a number of different stakeholders.

B. The balanced scorecard can be used to measure the organization's performance.

C. Value chain analysis can be used for analyzing the organization's product design, product testing, advertising, and production processes.

D. SWOT analysis is most helpful for non-profit organizations when it deals with the organization's competitive threats, opportunities, and critical success factors.

33. In order to remain competitive in the contemporary business environment, several firms have started training their employees to stop viewing problems as strictly functional -- a marketing problem, or an accounting problem, for example. What does this trend illustrate about strategic management?

A. There has been a renewed emphasis on integrative thinking and solving problems cross-functionally.

B. Functional barriers are an inherent part of a company's value chain.

C. Firms are increasingly seeing the value of business intelligence.

D. SWOT analysis is designed to break down functional barriers.

34. Which of the following organizations presents awards to firms that excel at execution of strategy, based on criteria such as leadership, marketing, strategic planning and process management?

A. International Organization for Standardization. B. Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Program. C. Global Reporting Initiative.

D. World Resources Institute.

E. American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.

35. The critical financial success factor of profitability can be measured by:

A. Community service activities.

B. Customer returns and complaints. C. Number of product defects.

D. Number of design changes. E. Earnings from operations.

36. Using value-chain analysis, a firm can develop a competitive advantage by specifically looking for ways to:

A. Add value and reduce cost.

B. Improve manufacturing productivity. C. Improve customer service.

D. Improve product quality. E. Reduce organizational risk.

37. Value activities can best be defined as:

A. Activities that firms in the industry must perform to improve a product.

B. Activities that firms in the industry must perform in the process of converting raw material to final product, including customer service. C. Activities that firms in the industry must perform in the process of closing down a product line, including customer service.

D. Activities that firms in the industry must perform to consider ways of marketing a product.

E. Activities that firms in the industry must perform in the process of considering new products, including customer service. 38. The World Resources Institute has defined:

A. Types of cost management.

B. Categories for environmental performance indicators. C. Methods for achieving sustainability.

D. Categories for economic performance indicators.

39. A firm succeeds on its ability to deliver products to customers more quickly than rival companies in its industry. This skill is an example of the firm's:

A. Core competency.

B. Research effectiveness.

C. Production efficiency.

D. Cost control effectiveness.

E. Value-chain analysis.

40. SWOT analysis, a valuable analysis tool, stands for:

A. Strengths - Workability - Opportunities - Threats

B. Strategies - Weaknesses - Opportunities - Threats

C. Strengths - Weaknesses - Observations - Threats

D. Strengths - Weaknesses - Opportunities - Threats

E. Strategies - Weaknesses - Observations - Threat

41. Which of the following perspectives of a Balanced Scorecard would most likely be the ultimate target in a strategy map for a public company?


A. Learning and innovation.


B. Internal processes.

C. Financial performance.

D. Customer service.

E. Employees and community.

42. Some of the indicators of a growing concern for sustainability include:

A. The liquidity crisis and sub-prime loan scandals.

B. The global economic recession.

C. The increased use of value chain analysis.

D. The increased concern about global warming.

E. The increased use of the balanced scorecard.

43. Patagonia, maker of clothing and gear for outdoor enthusiasts, is very conscious of sustainability issues. The company chose not to produce a product because:

A. The cost of manufacturing the product exceeded its target cost.

B. There was not sufficient demand for the product at the planned price.

C. The environmental impact of toxic waste was unacceptable.

D. The environmental impact of producing the product in terms of carbon emissions and energy consumptions was unacceptable.

E. The company could not justify adding another product when there were acceptable alternatives already in the company's product offerings.

44. The decline of the U.S. dollar relative to other currencies has caused firms outside the U.S., such as BMW and Volkswagen to:

A. Experience increasing sales in the U.S.

B. Experience increasing sales worldwide.

C. Locate plants in the U.S. to reduce overall manufacturing costs.

D. Require dealers to make payments in the Euro.

45. NAFTA and WTO refer to

A. Organizations with expertise in business process improvement.

B. Laws and organizations which regulate international trade.

C. Laws and regulations regarding sustainability.

D. Organizations and trade groups that work for global economic development.

46. The five steps of strategic decision making include all of the following steps except:

A. Obtain information and conduct analyses.

B. Determine the organization's strategy.

C. Identify the alternative actions.

D. Continue an on-going evaluation of the problem.

Choose and

general business data bank

general business data bank

Question

1. List four of the eight questions Kepner and Tregoe recommend that managers ask when diagnosing and analyzing causes.

2. List the three guidelines of innovative group decision-making in today's businesses.

ESSAY

1. Explain the difference between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions and give an example of each.

2. Compare decision conditions of certainty, risk, uncertainty, and ambiguity.

4. Explain the four underlying assumptions of the administrative model.

5. List and describe the four basic assumptions of the political model.

6. What are the six steps in the managerial decision making process?

7. Explain how a manager selects the desired decision in the managerial decision making process.

8. Briefly describe the four major personal decision styles.

general business data bank

general business data bank

Question

1. ________ are adept at building customer relationships, not just products; they are skilled in market engineering, not just product engineering.

a. Profit-centered companies

b. Customer-centered companies

c. Production-centered companies

d. Sales-centered companies

e. Promotion-centered companies

2. The opening vignette on Ritz-Carlton shows that successful marketers are the ones that fully ________.

a. understand promotional strategy

b. diversify their product line

c. divorce themselves from a production mentality

d. satisfy their customers profitably

e. understand the sales concept

3. In the modern customer-oriented organizational chart, which of the following is considered to be at the top of the organizational pyramid?

  1. Sales
  2. The president
  3. Front-line people
  4. Customers
  5. Middle management

4. ________ is the difference between the prospective customer’s evaluation of all the benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.

a. Perceived usefulness

b. Failure avoidance rate

c. Report rating

d. Customer-perceived value

e. Competitors’ market share rate


5. Total customer benefit is the perceived monetary value of the bundle of economic, functional, and ________ benefits customers expect from a given market offering.

a. psychological

b. intangible

c. realized

d. fabricated

e. advertised

6. The bundle of costs customers expect to incur in evaluating, obtaining, using, and disposing of the given market offering is called the ________.

a. organizational expense ratio

b. shopper’s fatigue

c. total customer cost

d. analysis paralysis

e. comparison shopping to comparison buying ratio

7. In applying a customer’s perceived value to a decision, a seller who is at a disadvantage with respect to customer-perceived value has two alternatives: to increase total customer benefit or ________.

a. increase a cash-back bonus

b. decrease total customer cost

c. lose the sale to the competitor

d. advertise more frequently

e. offer an extended warranty

8. The final step of customer value analysis is to ________.

a. identify the major attributes and benefits that customers value

b. assess the company’s and competitors’ performances on the different customer values against their rated importance

c. examine how customers in a specific segment rate the company’s performance against a specific major competitor on an individual attribute or benefit basis

d. monitor customer values over time

e. assess the quantitative importance of the different attributes and benefits

9. The ________ consists of the whole cluster of benefits the company promises to deliver; it is more than the core positioning of the offering.

a. customer promise

b. mission statement

c. corporate pledge

d. corporate-perceived value

e. value proposition


A company’s ________ includes all the experiences the customer will have on the way to obtaining and using the offering.

f. value proposition

g. value delivery system

h. customer-value analysis

i. total customer benefit

j. total customer cost

10. Total customer satisfaction is measured based on the relationship of ________.

a. anticipated and real performance

b. perceived performance and expectation

c. advertised outcomes and real outcomes

d. past experience and present experience

e. customer attitude and salesperson’s attitude

11. The ultimate goal of the customer-centered firm is ________.

a. high customer satisfaction

b. high profits

c. low costs

d. maximum stakeholder satisfaction

e. none of the above

12. Buyers form their expectations from all of the following EXCEPT ________.

a. past buying experience

b. friends and associates advice

c. marketers’ information

d. competitors’ information

e. governmental newsletters

13. A customer’s decision to be loyal or to defect is the sum of many small encounters with the company. In order for all these small encounters to add up to customer loyalty, many companies, such as Joie de Vivre Hospitality, strive to create ________.

a. a reward program

b. a comprehensive customer database

c. a branded customer experience

d. strong word-of-mouth promotions

e. a top-notch advertising campaign


14. One key to customer retention is ________. It would be wise for a company to measure this factor frequently.

a. heavy promotion

b. deep discounts for intermediaries

c. to have an ethics officer

d. customer satisfaction

e. to have customers on the board of directors

15. ________ can track customer satisfaction directly and also gauge consumers’ willingness to recommend the company and brand to others.

a. Periodic surveys

b. Mystery shoppers

c. Customer loss rates

d. Customer focus statements

e. All of the above

16. Studies of customer dissatisfaction show that customers are dissatisfied with their purchases about 25% of the time, but only about ________ complain.

a. 1%

b. 5%

c. 10%

d. 15%

e. 20%

17. Of customers who register a complaint, ________.

a. the majority will do business with the company again because they are unwilling to dedicate the effort required to find another vendor

b. none will do business with the company again

c. customers whose complaints are satisfactorily resolved spread more word of mouth than those who continue to be dissatisfied

d. the speed of resolution has no impact on the likelihood of repeat business

e. between approximately half and three-quarters will do business with the company again if their complaint is resolved

18. ________ is the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.

a. Performance

b. Value

c. Quality

d. Customer retention

e. Customer loyalty


19. Total quality is the key to value creation and customer satisfaction. A marketing manager has several roles to play in a quality-centered company, including ________.

a. participating in cross-functional team building

b. correctly identifying customers’ needs and requirements

c. ensuring costs are adequately controlled during order fulfillment

d. setting expectations both internally and externally

e. working closely with the sales team to create a dynamic sales message

20. The 20–80 rule reflects the idea that ________.

a. the top 20% of customers often generate 80% of the company’s profits

b. the top 20% of customers are highly satisfied and 80% of customers will recommend the company to a friend

c. 20% of customers are unprofitable, and 80% make up a company’s profits

d. 20% of the company’s profits are generated by the top 80% of customers

e. any new product offering will be accepted by 20% of the customers immediately, but 80% of the customers will be up for grabs throughout the product’s life cycle

21. Most companies have learned that the ________ are often the most profitable because of service expectations and their willingness to pay almost full price.

a. large-size customers

b. midsize customers

c. small-size customers

d. niche customer

e. target market customers

22. A(n) ________ customer is a person, household, or company that over time yields a revenue stream that exceeds by an acceptable amount the company’s cost stream of attracting, selling, and servicing that customer.

a. profitable

b. semiprofitable

c. unprofitable

d. niche

e. target

23. Customer profitability analysis (CPA) is best conducted with the tools of an accounting technique called ________.

a. input-output analysis

b. factor analysis

c. revenue-based costing (RBC)

d. activity-based costing (ABC)

e. future date costing (FDC)


________ describes the net present value of the stream of future profits expected over the customer’s lifetime purchases.

f. Activity-based costing

g. Customer profitability analysis

h. Customer value analysis

i. Customer-perceived value

j. Customer lifetime value

24. The aim of customer relationship management (CRM) is to produce high customer ________.

a. value

b. loyalty

c. profitability

d. satisfaction

e. equity

25. A customer touch point in the airline industry would include an item such as ________.

a. reservations

b. mechanics’ ability to service the airplanes

c. ease of access to the airport

d. the value of air travel versus surface transportation

e. competency of a travel agent

26. Customer relationship management enables companies to provide excellent real-time customer service through the effective use of _______.

a. reports from mystery shoppers

b. survey data from customers who have defected

c. market research into overall consumption trends

d. individual account information

e. demographic trend data

27. All of the following would be among the Peppers and Rogers’s four-step framework for one-to-one marketing that can be adapted to CRM marketing EXCEPT ________.

a. customizing products, services, and messages to each customer

b. interacting with individual customers to learn their needs

c. always offering the lowest price

d. differentiating customers in terms of their needs and value to the company

e. identifying your prospects and customers


28. Winning companies improve the value of their customer base by excelling at each of the following strategies EXCEPT ________.

a. retaining all customers regardless of profitability

b. reducing the rate of customer defection

c. increasing the longevity of the customer relationship

d. making low-profit customers more profitable or terminating them

e. focusing disproportionate efforts on high-value customers

29. Harley-Davidson sells more than motorcycles and accessories. Its dealerships also sell branded clothing and licensed goods. This expansion of dealership sales offerings is an attempt to increase the value of the customer base by ________.

a. reducing the rate of customer defection

b. increasing the longevity of the customer relationship

c. enhancing the growth potential of each customer through cross-selling

d. making low-profit customers more profitable

e. terminating low-profit customers

30. Although actual costs vary from business to business depending on the complexity of the sales process, the most expensive customer acquisition method based on cost per solicitation is ________.

a. personal selling

b. direct mail

c. telemarketing

d. banner advertisements

e. e-mail

Question_DOC2_12Dec_2nd

Question_DOC2_12Dec_2nd

Question

41. Self-efficacy refers to

a. a person's desire to learn training content.

b. learners possessing the basic skills and sufficient cognitive abilities to learn the new tasks.

c. the perceived ability of the instructor to transfer the knowledge to the student.

d. a person's belief that he/she can successfully learn the training program content.

/

42. Coretta, the director of training for a regional bank, is frustrated with Allen, one of the new teller

trainees. Allen is progressing too slowly to be able to complete the two-week course successfully.

Coretta is considering whether Allen is really ready to learn. Coretta examines all of the following

possibilities EXCEPT

a. whether Allen has a learning style that is not being addressed by the current teller training

program.

b. whether Allen has the self-confidence that he can successfully learn the tasks.

c. whether Allen is really interested in learning how to do the teller tasks.

d. whether Allen has the cognitive ability to understand the teller tasks.

/

43. At Plantsman’s Eden nursery, new greenhouse workers are trained in proper techniques for

transplanting rooted cuttings. As part of the training, the workers are given 10 seedlings of different

kinds of plants to transplant. These efforts will be checked by the trainer. This is an example of

a. active practice.

b. behavior modeling.

c. Gestalt learning.

d. visual learning.

/

44. ____ learners must "get their hands on" and use the training resources.

a. Auditory

b. Action

c. Tactile

d. Visual

/

45. When Abner presents week-long training programs on negotiation techniques to experienced

managers, he deliberately starts out with a general overview of negotiation and how it contributes to

better employer-employee relations. Then, he describes to the trainee-managers the specific parts of

the negotiation training program they will cover in the following week. Abner is using

a. behavior modeling.

b. Gestalt learning.

c. efficacy enhancement techniques.

d. active practice.

/

46. ____ occurs when trainees perform job-related tasks and duties during training.

a. Whole learning

b. Transfer of training

c. Positive reinforcement

d. Active practice

/

47. ____ occurs when several practice sessions are stretched out over a period of hours or days.

a. Spaced

b. Massed

c. Alternate

d. Active

/

48. All of the following are principles for designing training for adults EXCEPT

a. building in confidence-raising experiences for the trainees.

b. providing structure and direction.

c. centering the training around problems.

d. clarifying why the training is needed.

/

49. Cole, the director of training for a manufacturer of heavy equipment, is designing a training program

for new sales representatives. The sales reps need to be able to quote “chapter and verse” from the

company catalog regarding types of equipment, their functions, their appropriate and inappropriate

uses, pricing, and financing packages. Cole’s training program would be most effective if he designed

it using ____ practice for the sales reps.

a. computer-based

b. spaced

c. massed

d. virtual

/

50. The most elementary way in which people learn is ____, or copying someone else's behavior.

a. behavior modification

b. behavior modeling

c. cognitive practice

d. positive reinforcement

/

51. In order to encourage employees to take an emergency first aid course and CPR training, the HR

director is giving each employee who completes the first aid and CPR courses a “lottery ticket.” In

July, a plant-wide lottery will be held with prizes worth up to $100. The director of HR has decided to

use the concept of

a. Gestalt learning.

b. behavior modeling.

c. immediate confirmation.

d. reinforcement

/

52. The concept of reinforcement is based on the law of

a. effect

b. behavior.

c. reaction.

d. modification.

/

53. Soltura Products, Inc., has a training program for customer service representatives that tests trainees on

their knowledge of company products. Every time the trainee answers a question, he/she learns

whether the answer is right or wrong. This is called

a. behavior modeling

b. primary reinforcement

c. immediate confirmation

d. active practice

/

54. One way to aid transfer of training to job situations is to ensure that

a. trainers have high levels of self-efficacy.

b. immediate confirmation is provided.

c. the specific details of the training tasks are addressed early in the process.

d. the training mirrors the job context as much as possible.

/

55. Which of the following statements about transfer of training is TRUE?

a. On the whole and in most circumstances, training results in learning and has a long-term

effect on employee behavior.

b. If employees make the initial transfer of their new skills to the workplace, they will retain

these skills for the long term.

c. Training may have an initial impact on employee behavior, but its impact erodes

dramatically over a year’s time.

d. Transfer of training is so poor that most training efforts must be repeated annually.

/

56. The most common method for delivering training in the workplace is

a. face-to-face internal training.

b. self-guided training.

c. web conferencing.

d. outside training.

/

57. ____ is an internal source of training that occurs through interactions and feedback among employees.

a. Informal training

b. Vestibule training

c. Employee development

d. New employee orientation

/

58. The most common type of training at all levels in an organization is/are

a. simulation exercises.

b. role playing.

c. on-the-job training.

d. classroom instruction.

/

59. Which of the following is TRUE about on-the-job training (OJT)?

a. It is less disruptive to the work flow than other types of training.

b. It is flexible and relevant to what employees do.

c. It is more expensive than classroom training.

d. OJT is most effective when it arises spontaneously out of job activities.

/

60. Dr. Smith, a small-animal veterinarian, has hired Carlos as an assistant. On Carlos’ first day, Dr. Smith

shows Carlos the technique for holding a cat during vaccinations. First, Dr. Smith describes the

technique. Then he shows Carlos the technique. Then he asks Carlos to hold the cat and sees if Carlos

is successful. This is an example of

a. cross-training.

b. cooperative training.

c. apprenticeship.

d. on-the-job training.

/

61. Unions view cross-training unfavorably because it

a. threatens job jurisdiction.

b. may make layoffs easier for the employer to implement.

c. reduces effective wages per hour.

d. increases worker productivity, and thus threatens job security.

/

62. The two major advantages for the employer of cross-training employees is development and

a. individual employee productivity increases.

b. cost efficiencies.

c. better union relations.

d. flexibility.

/

63. Outside training would be appropriate in all the following situations EXCEPT

a. the organization has few employees who need a particular set of skills.

b. the employees need to be trained quickly.

c. the employees have low learner readiness levels.

d. the organization’s HR staff lacks the expertise needed to in the training content.

/

64. In a small organization without an HR department, new employee orientation is the responsibility of

a. the new employer him/herself.

b. the business owner.

c. the new employee's supervisor or manager.

d. the new employee's coworkers.

/

65. WWFS has a large number of cooks and other food service workers who will be sent to hostile

environments overseas to prepare meals for the military. The workers have been hired, but they need

to be trained almost immediately because of the contract with the military, and the HR staff at WWFS

is overloaded. It would be most wise for WWFS to

a. cancel the military contract.

b. hire external trainers.

c. hire and train new HR staff to do the training.

d. use on-the-job training when the new hires arrive in the hostile environment.

/

66. ____ involves the use of vendors to train employees.

a. Outsourcing

b. Job instruction training

c. Performance consulting

d. Cooperative education

/

67. The Workforce Investment Act encourages employers to hire ____ through tax credits.

a. single mothers

b. disabled adults

c. disadvantaged youths

d. ex-felons

/

68. Susan, the new director of training, has noticed that the orientation program for new employees is

quite abbreviated. Basically, the employees are directed to the organization handbook on the

organization’s Web site and told to read it. Susan wants to design and implement a more thorough and

well-designed orientation program, because the company hires about 100 new employees per year at

all levels. In listing her arguments in favor of spending money on this new program, Susan lists all of

the following positive points EXCEPT

a. effective orientation will establish a favorable employee impression of the organization.

b. effective orientation will reduce the number of discrimination lawsuits by employees.

c. effective orientation will ensure employee performance and productivity begin more

quickly.

d. effective orientation will improve employee retention rates.

/

69. ____ is the general term for the use of the Internet or an organizational intranet to conduct training online.

a. Distance education

b. E-learning

c. Computer education

d. Web-learning

/

70. Which of the following statements about e-learning is TRUE?

a. E-learning has a much lower drop-out rate than conventional training.

b. E-learning is strongly preferred as a training medium by employees.

c. E-learning provides easy access to more employees than does conventional training.

d. E-learning is somewhat more expensive per trainee than conventional training methods.

/

71. Which of the following would be identified as a form of cooperative training?

a. simulations

b. e-learning

c. on-the-job training

d. school-to-work transition

/

72. ____ combine job training with classroom instruction from schools, colleges and universities.

a. Apprenticeships

b. Educational assistance programs

c. Internships

d. Sabbaticals

/

73. The generic term for training that combines on-the-job experiences with classroom instruction is

a. internship.

b. apprenticeship.

c. job instruction training (JIT).

d. cooperative training.

/

74. Apprenticeships are used most often to train people for jobs in

a. management development.

b. assembly line work.

c. skilled crafts.

d. technology-related areas.

/

75. The director of HR is reluctant to institute an educational assistance program. His major argument

against such a program is

a. tuition reimbursement is more expensive than other types of training that have greater

benefit to the organization.

b. employees who graduate with new degrees expect promotions and raises, and this is

unrealistic.

c. employees who are enrolled in night or weekend programs tend to neglect their jobs

because of the need to study and their reluctance to work overtime.

d. when an employee graduates, he/she may quit and take an offer from another company.

/

76. Bruce, the director of training, is redesigning the company’s orientation program. He must consider all

of the following variables in deciding what training delivery method to use EXCEPT

a. on average, how many new employees the company hires each month.

b. whether the orientation training can be marketed to other companies in order to generate a

revenue stream.

c. the size of the training budget.

d. whether the new hires are geographically dispersed or whether they work in the same

location.

/

77. In large part, ____ is a socialization tool.

a. on-boarding

b. apprenticeship

c. mentoring

d. on-the-job training

/

78. A common failure of new employee orientation is

a. focusing on managerial-level employees and neglecting non-exempt employees.

b. over-reliance on Web-based techniques that do not facilitate employee socialization.

c. overloading the new employee with information.

d. neglecting to convey the organization’s history and mission.

/

79. An artificial surgical environment in which a surgeon could practice a new type of operation without

harming a human being or sacrificing a laboratory animal would be called

a. virtual reality.

b. humanitarian training.

c. gaming.

d. artificial learning.

/

80. The ultimate goal in using e-training techniques is to

a. improve employee technology skills.

b. convey the training content.

c. reduce costs per trainee.

d. increasing consistency in training experiences for employees.

Saint MbA 560 week 5 homework

Saint MbA 560 week 5 homework

Question

Problem 9-23Ratio analysis

Required

Use the financial statements for Bernard Company from Problem 9-22 to calculate the following for 2012 and 2011.

a. Working capital

b. Current ratio

c. Quick ratio

d. Accounts receivable turnover (beginning receivables at January 1, 2011, were $47,000)

e. Average number of days to collect accounts receivable

f. Inventory turnover (beginning inventory at January 1, 2011, was $140,000) (Edmonds. Survey of Accounting. 2012)

g. Average number of days to sell inventory

h. Debt to assets ratio

i. Debt to equity ratio

j. Times interest earned

k. Plant assets to long-term debt

l. Net margin

m. Asset turnover

n. Return on investment

o. Return on equity

p. Earnings per share

q. Book value per share of common stock

r. Price-earnings ratio (market price per share: 2011, $11.75; 2012, $12.50)

s. Dividend yield on common stock

Saint MbA 560 week 5 homework

Saint MbA 560 week 5 homework

Problem 10-23Service versus manufacturing companies

Goree Company began operations on January 1, 2011, by issuing common stock for $30,000 cash. During 2011, Goree received $40,000 cash from revenue and incurred costs that required $60,000 of cash payments.

Required

Prepare an income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flows for Goree Company for 2011, under each of the following independent scenarios. (Edmonds. Survey of Accounting. 2012)

a. Goree is a promoter of rock concerts. The $60,000 was paid to provide a rock concert that produced the revenue.

a.

a.b. Goree is in the car rental business. The $60,000 was paid to purchase automobiles. The automobiles were purchased on January 1, 2011, had four-year useful lives and no expected salvage value. Goree uses straight-line depreciation. The revenue was generated by leasing the automobiles.

a.

a.c. Goree is a manufacturing company. The $60,000 was paid to purchase the following items.

a.

a.(1 Paid $8,000 cash to purchase materials that were used to make products during the year.

a.

a.(2 Paid $20,000 cash for wages of factory workers who made products during the year.

a.

a.(3 Paid $2,000 cash for salaries of sales and administrative employees.

a.

a.(4 Paid $30,000 cash to purchase manufacturing equipment. The equipment was used solely to make products. It had a three-year life and a $6,000 salvage value. The company uses straight-line depreciation.

a.

a.(5 During 2011, Goree started and completed 2,000 units of product. The revenue was earned when Goree sold 1,500 units of product to its customers.

a.

a.d. Refer to Requirementc. Could Goree determine the actual cost of making the 90th unit of product? How likely is it that the actual cost of the 90th unit of product was exactly the same as the cost of producing the 408th unit of product? Explain why management may be more interested in average cost than in actual cost. (Edmonds. Survey of Accounting. 2012)

,
Attachments
(279.89 KB)

DAVENPORT & PRUSAK ON KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT

DAVENPORT & PRUSAK ON KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT

DAVENPORT & PRUSAK ON KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT

Order Description Assignment for this week is to find and summarize key points of two articles: • The first article on “Technologies for Knowledge Management” according to Davenport. • The second article on “Knowledge roles and skills” according to Davenport. Each article should be summarized on a separate page. The paper should be the same format as the example I’ve attached. The Emergence of Explicit Knowledge from Implicit Learning The second article gives an overview of a study that was carried out in order to determine if the knowledge acquired on statistical contingencies is unconscious even if it can be accessed to the conscious awareness (Goujon et al., 2014). Prior to the presentation of the results of the study, the authors explain that observers have the ability to extract statistical contingencies that are available in their visual settings. As such, the study was intended to provide a confirmation on this observation. According to the observations that were made by the authors, conscious awareness is responsible for our knowledge and awareness of regularities. This was confirmed by the first experiment (experiment 1) that was conducted. The first experiment also confirmed that during the early phases of training, learning of regular objects and structures occur at an unconscious stage/level. The second and the third experiments elaborate the relationship that exists between consciousness and learning. Specifically, the second experiment inquired the nature of  knowledge that an individual acquired in the initial training phase. This experiment is an extension of the first experiment because it originated from the analysis of the association between context, target and location as opposed to the general facilitation, which was emphasized in the first experiment. On the other hand, the third experiment was prompted after the revelation of the existence of the contextual cuing effect and it was guided by two goals. Even though the third experiment shares similar principles with the second experiment, it was slightly different because the implementation of memory tasks was carried out in different blocks, between the second and the third block (Goujon et al., 2014).Unpacking the Cross-Level Effects of Tenure Diversity, Explicit Knowledge, and Knowledge Sharing On Individual Creativity In this article, Gilson et al. (2013), explain that the composition of workforces in organizations has changed tremendously. To confirm their argument, the authors carried out a study in order to explore the impacts of tenure diversity and the creativity that various workforces express. The study was carried out in 341 insurance agents in Korea. The authors also employed implicit knowledge on individual levels in order to facilitate mediation between the respondents’ creativity and tenure diversity. The study was objective and it facilitated the attainment of the goals. From their study, Gilson et al. (2013) established that the ability and willingness of people to share knowledge is paramount in the moderation of the relationship that exists between a person’s explicit knowledge and tenure diversity. Similarly, the authors found out that tenure diversity can positively impact an individual’s explicit knowledge provided that knowledge sharing is encouraged. With reference to the findings of the research, it is apparent that explicit knowledge can have indirect effects on a person’s creativity. As such, sharing of knowledge should be embraced at all times. From the results of the study, it can be deduced that tenure diversity is related to knowledge sharing, explicit knowledge and creativity. The findings of this study are relevant and applicable in the present day life because while working in groups is encouraged, such groups will not be beneficial if knowledge is not shared among the members. Explicit knowledge acts as a mediator between tenure diversity and creatively and its impact and positives can be limited if sharing of information is low. For instance, complex tasks and challenges in life can be tackled if those who are involved come together and share the experiences that they have. References Goujon, A., Didierjean, A., & Poulet, S. (2014). The emergence of explicit knowledge from implicit learning. Memory & Cognition, 42(2), 225-236. doi:10.3758/s13421-013-0355-0 Gilson, L. L., Lim, H. S., Luciano, M. M., & Choi, J. N. (2013). Unpacking the cross-level effects of tenure diversity, explicit knowledge, and knowledge sharing on individual creativity. Journal Of Occupational & Organizational Psychology, 86(2), 203-222. doi:10.1111/joop.12011

Bus312 assignment 1

Bus312 assignment 1

Question

Homework 1a

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The essence of decision analysis is:

a.

breaking down complex situations into manageable elements.

b.

choosing the best course of action among alternatives.

c.

finding the root cause of why something has gone wrong.

d.

thinking ahead to avoid negative consequences.

____ 2. Why would someone wish to use a spreadsheet model?

a.

To implement a computer model.

b.

Because spreadsheets are convenient.

c.

To analyze decision alternatives.

d.

All the above.

____ 3. Which of the following fields of study is defined in Chapter One as the one that "uses computers, statistics, and mathematics to solve business problems"?

a.

Accounting

b.

Information systems

c.

Management science

d.

Scientific management

____ 4. Which of the following statements is true of using models in problem solving and decision analysis?

a.

It is a fairly new idea.

b.

It is required in order to find good solutions.

c.

It is something everyone has done before.

d.

It is tied to the use of computers.

____ 5. The textbook figure of the problem solving process is an example of a

a.

mental model.

b.

prescriptive model.

c.

graphical model.

d.

visual model.

____ 6. Which of the following is most likely to be used when faced with the decision of how to arrange furniture in a room?

a.

Mathematical model

b.

Mental model

c.

Physical model

d.

Visual model

____ 7. To illustrate how a complex system will be built, an engineer will likely use a

a.

Mathematical model

b.

Mental model

c.

Physical model

d.

Visual model

____ 8. Which of the following is the type of model used throughout this textbook?

a.

Mathematical model

b.

Mental model

c.

Physical model

d.

Visual model

____ 9. In this text we use the term "mathematics" to encompass

i.

familiar elements of math such as algebra.

ii.

logic.

a.

i only

b.

ii only

c.

Both i and ii

d.

Neither i nor ii

____ 10. Variables are termed independent when they satisfy which of the following?

a.

The function value depends upon their values.

b.

The decision maker has no control over them.

c.

The variables have no relationship to one another.

d.

The variable is described as an output of the spreadsheet model.

____ 11. Consider the spreadsheet model shown in the figure. This is a

A

B

C

1

2

3

Purchase price

$32,500

4

less:

5

Down payment

$ 6,500

6

Trade-in

$ 4,000

7

Amount financed

$22,000

8

9

Term of loan

5 years

10

11

Annual interest rate

11.25%

12

13

Monthly payment

$481.08

14

a.

descriptive model.

b.

predictive model.

c.

prescriptive model.

d.

preventive model.

____ 12. Solutions to which of the following categories of modeling techniques indicate a course of action to the decision maker?

a.

Descriptive models

b.

Predictive models

c.

Prescriptive models

d.

Preventive models

____ 13. In which of the following categories of modeling techniques are the specifications of the relationships between dependent and independent variables unknown or ill-defined?

a.

Descriptive models

b.

Open models

c.

Predictive models

d.

Prescriptive models

____ 14. Which of the following categories of modeling techniques includes simulation?

a.

Descriptive models

b.

Predictive models

c.

Prescriptive models

d.

Scale models

____ 15. To be effective, a modeler must

a.

be an effective presenter of results.

b.

collect the proper input data for the model.

c.

understand how modeling fits into the problem-solving process.

d.

apply the correct modeling technique.

____ 16. There are a variety of problems a manager might face. While presenting and defending your approach, how would you complete this thought: Several different modeling techniques are available to solve managerial decision problems,

a.

the wrong choice of modeling technique is a common source of implementation difficulties.

b.

students should develop a strong preference and expertise in one technique so when faced with problems as managers they can formulate them as a model that can be solved by their favorite technique.

c.

fundamental characteristics of the problem guide the selection of an appropriate modeling technique.

d.

however, most problems faced by managers are fundamentally the same.

____ 17. Which of the following is true of "What if?" analysis?

a.

A well-designed spreadsheet facilitates "What if?" analysis.

b.

It is not very useful when working with non mathematical models.

c.

"What if?" analysis is an efficient optimization technique.

d.

"What if?" analysis is useful in creating a well-defined problem statement.

____ 18. Implementing solutions to problems involves people and change. Which of the following is a suggested approach to effectively implement solutions?

a.

Decision making authority centralized to those who have specialized training in decision making.

b.

Involve anyone affected by the decision in all steps of the problem-solving process.

c.

Making decisions according to majority vote.

d.

More skillful communication of management decisions.

____ 19. Chapter One discussed all of the following except:

a.

how models of decision problems differ in a number of important characteristics.

b.

how spreadsheet modeling and analysis fit into the problem-solving process.

c.

how spreadsheet models of decision problems can be used to analyze the consequences of possible courses of action.

d.

how to implement a problem formulation as a spreadsheet model.

____ 20. The Chapter One case reading discusses the relationship between OR/MS and IS professionals. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a.

OR/MS analysts need IS professionals' data for their models.

b.

OR/MS analysts need to take many of the IS customers.

c.

The IS professional cannot use OR/MS tools in their applications.

d.

The IS tools can start to recommend solutions using OR/MS skills.

Kaplan GB530 Unit 1

Kaplan GB530 Unit 1

Question Brand Extension Marketing Plan Project
Introduction: The major project in this course is to complete a Brand Extension Marketing Plan for one new product on the behalf of an existing for-profit organization.
Project Assignment: As we begin our project here in Unit 1, you need to first assume you have the role of a marketing manager for one, new, currently not available product on the behalf of a real, for-profit organization. Consider this a “brand extension”: you are adding a product to an existing company’s product line. This product may be introduced on a local, regional, national, or international scale.
It is very important that you fully comprehend what a brand extension is before you begin your major assignment. Find “brand extension” in your Kotler text and make certain you understand the definition. Brand extensions fall into two categories: line extension and category extension. Be sure to understand the difference. Reading this section in your text will be extremely helpful to you!
Give careful thought to your selection. Remember that the proposal is for a new product for a new market. Extend the brand name into a new product offering. In other words, offer a “new to the company” product. Companies may do this by buying an existing product or by importing a new product and putting their own name on it or by developing their own new product to compete in the market.
Be sure to follow the Brand Extension Marketing Plan directions contained in the guide located in Doc Sharing. It is important to address each and every question/segment in the rubric in order to receive maximum points. Remember that a fully-executed marketing plan contains a significant amount of detail! You can also find a good Sample Marketing Plan (Pegasus Sports International) in Chapter 2 of your Kotler text.
Be sure to thoroughly address each of the following questions in your Unit 1 Marketing Plan submission.
? What is the brand name of your for-profit business/organization? ? What is the new product, not currently in existence, that will generate revenue for which you will prepare a marketing plan and strategy during this class? Give the product a name and briefly describe it. ? Look up “brand extension” in your Kotler text and describe whether your product is considered a line or a category extension. ? How will you acquire information to prepare your marketing plan during this class? What research will you undertake? Be specific. ? Describe the key customer market (who are you targeting?) ? Will your new product be marketed domestically or globally? Why?
Assignment Grading Rubric
Course: GB530 Unit: 1
Copyright Kaplan University
Submit your response to the above questions into the Unit 1 Assignment Dropbox.
The components of your Brand Extension Marketing Plan for Unit 1 are evaluated using this rubric.
Unit 1 Brand Extension Marketing Plan Assignment Criteria Possible Points Identified a new product that will generate revenue for which you will prepare a marketing plan and strategy. You gave the product a name and described it. 10 Looked up brand extension in your Kotler text and defined how your product fits this definition. Defined your brand as a line or category extension. 10 Stated how information will be acquired to prepare the brand extension marketing plan and described what research you will undertake. 10 Described the key customer market for the product. 5 Identified whether the new product be marketed domestically or globally. 5 Clear business writing. Spelling and grammar are acceptable. 10 Total