ADULT EDUCATION

ADULT EDUCATION

ADULT EDUCATION

Adult education Can you please help with the following: How can federal, state,and local policymakers work together to meet adult education and training demands? Please base your response on a combination of our readings, your personal readings/knowledge, and your experience.

accounts data bank

accounts data bank

Question

51. Briefly explain the following terms associated with accounting for foreign entities:

a) Functional Currency
b) Translation
c) Remeasurement





52. On January 1, 2008, Pace Company acquired all of the outstanding stock of Spin PLC, a British Company, for $350,000. Spin's net assets on the date of acquisition were 250,000 pounds (£). On January 1, 2008, the book and fair values of the Spin's identifiable assets and liabilities approximated their fair values except for property, plant, and equipment and trademarks. The fair value of Spin's property, plant, and equipment exceeded its book value by $25,000. The remaining useful life of Spin's equipment at January 1, 2008, was 10 years. The remainder of the differential was attributable to a trademark having an estimated useful life of 5 years. Spin's trial balance on December 31, 2008, in pounds, follows:


accounts   data bank

Additional Information
1 Spin uses the FIFO method for its inventory. The beginning inventory was acquired on December 31, 2007, and ending inventory was acquired on December 26, 2008. Purchases of £300,000 were made evenly throughout 2008.
2 Spin acquired all of its property, plant, and equipment on March 1, 2006, and uses straight-line depreciation.
3 Spin's sales were made evenly throughout 2008, and its operating expenses were incurred evenly throughout 2008.
4 The dividends were declared and paid on November 1, 2008.
5 Pace's income from its own operations was $150,000 for 2008, and its total stockholders' equity on January 1, 2008, was $1,000,000. Pace declared $50,000 of dividends during 2008.
6 Exchange rates were as follows:




accounts   data bank





53. Use the information given in question 52 to prepare a schedule providing a proof of the translation adjustment.





54. Refer to the information in question 52. Assume the U.S. dollar is the functional currency, not the pound.




55. Refer to the information in question 52. Assume the U.S. dollar is the functional currency, not the pound. Prepare a schedule providing a proof of the remeasurement gain or loss. Assume that the British subsidiary had the following monetary assets and liabilities at January 1, 2008:


accounts   data bank





56. Parisian Co. is a French company located in Paris. Yankee Corp., located in New York City, acquires Parisian Co. Parisian has the Euro as its local currency and the Swiss Franc as its functional currency. Yankee has the U.S. dollar as its local currency and the U.S. dollar as its functional currency.






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accounting question

accounting question

Question 11.4 Maximus Company has met all production requirements for the current month and has an opportunity to produce additional units of product with its excess capacity. Unit selling prices and unit costs for three models of one of its product lines are as follows.

Plain model Regular model Super model
Selling price £30.00 £32.50 £40.00
Direct material £9.00 £10.00 £9.50
Direct labour (@ £5 per hour) £5.00 £7.50 £10.00
Variable overhead £4.00 £6.00 £8.00
Fixed overhead £8.00 £7.50 £7.50

Variable overhead is applied on the basis of direct labour dollars, while fixed overhead is applied on the basis of machine hours. There is sufficient demand for the additional production of any model of the product line.

a. If Maximus Company has excess machine capacity and can add more labour as needed (i.e. neither machine capacity nor labour is a constraint), which product is the most attractive to produce? Provide calculations and reasons to support your answer.

b. If Maximus Company has excess machine capacity but a limited amount of labour time available, to which product or products should the excess production capacity be devoted? Provide calculations and reasons to support your answer.

economics homework help

economics homework help

Question

In economics, the term demand refers to the quantity of a good that people

A) would like to consume on a given date.

B) are willing and able to buy at a particular price on a given date.

C) are willing and able to buy at all possible prices.

D) would like to have available during a given time period.

E) none of the above

2.

In economics, the term supply refers to

A) the quantity of a good or service a producer must sell to earn a profit.

B) the quantity of a product that people want to buy.

C) the quantity of an item offered for sale at a particular price.

D) the quantity of a good or service producers will sell at all possible prices.

E) none of the above

3.

When buyers will purchase exactly as much as sellers are willing to sell, what is the condition that has been reached?

A) supply and demand

B) excess demand

C) equilibrium price

D) price floor

E) none of the above

4.

When there is an increase in supply, what is the probable result in the market?

A) equilibrium would settle at a higher price and a lower quantity

B) equilibrium would settle at a lower price and a higher quantity

C) equilibrium would settle at a lower price and a lower quantity

D) equilibrium would not change

E) none of the above

5.

In a market economy, who is it that ultimately determines the demand for a product or service?

A) the producers who create the product or service

B) the government

C) those who buy the product or service

D) those who supply the raw materials used in the production of the good or service

E) all of the above

6.

When there is a decrease in demand, what happens in the market?

A) equilibrium would settle at a higher price and a higher quantity

B) equilibrium would settle at a lower price and a higher quantity

C) equilibrium would settle at a higher price and a lower quantity

D) equilibrium would settle at a lower price and a lower quantity

E) none of the above

7.

What happens to a market when producers set their prices above the equilibrium price?

A) quantity supplied will exceed quantity demanded, so there will be a surplus

B) quantity demanded will exceed quantity supplied, so there will be a shortage

C) excess supply means that price will continue to rise

D) competition among sellers will cause prices to fall

E) A and D

8.

A change in any of the following can cause a change in demand EXCEPT

A) income

B) tastes and preferences

C) the price of substitute goods

D) increases in production technology

E) the availability of a complimentary good

9.

A change in any of the following can cause a change in supply EXCEPT

A) taxes

B) price of inputs

C) price of the product

D) number of suppliers

E) productivity

10.

Which of these is the most likely effect of an increase in the cost of production?

A) a decrease in supply

B) a decrease in demand

C) an increase in demand

D) an increase in supply

E) all of the above

11.

Demand for a product tends to be inelastic when the product

A) has few, if any, substitutes.

B) is expensive.

C) is a luxury item.

D) has many substitutes.

E) all of the above

12.

Demand for milk tends to be inelastic because milk is considered

A) a necessity.

B) a substitute.

C) good on Cap'n Crunch.

D) a luxury.

E) all of the above

13.

The price elasticity of demand measures how responsive

A) buyers are to a change in income

B) sellers are to a change in price

C) buyers are to a change in price

D) sellers are to a change in production costs.

E) none of the above

14.

Demand is said to be elastic if

A) the price of the good responds substantially to changes in quantity demand.

B) the quantity demanded responds substantially to changes in the price of the good.

C) the price of the good responds only slightly to changes in quantity demand.

D) the quantity demanded responds only slightly to changes in the price of the good.

E) none of the above

15.

When the price of bubble gum is $0.50, the quantity demanded is 400 packs per day. When the price falls to $0.40, the quantity demanded increases to 600. Given this information and using the total revenue method, you know that the demand for bubble gum is

A) inelastic.

B) elastic.

C) unit elastic.

D) perfectly inelastic.

E) none of the above

16.

Figure 1 (Questions 16-19)

Combined Supply and Demand Schedule

Price of a

slice of pizza Quantity

demanded Quantity

supplied

$.50 300 100

$1.00 250 150

$1.50 200 200

$2.00 150 250

$2.50 100 300

$3.00 50 350

In Figure 1, when the price of a slice of pizza is $2.50, how many slices are sold?

A) 250

B) 200

C) 150

D) 100

E) 50

17.

In Figure 1, what is the equilibrium price?

A) $3.00

B) $2.00

C) $1.50

D) $1.00

E) not enough information

18.

In Figure 1, when the price of a slice of pizza is $.50, which choice explains what is occuring the market?

A) quantity demanded equals 200

B) there is a shortage of pizza

C) the market is in equilibrium

D) there is a surplus of pizza

E) not enough information

19.

In Figure 1, when the price of a slice of pizza is $2.50, what happens to the market?

A) there is a shortage of pizza

B) there is a price floor on pizza

C) the quantity demanded equals 250

D) there is a surplus of pizza

E) not enough information

20.

Use Figure 2 for Questions 20-22

Refer to Figure 2. At a price of $15,

A) there would be a shortage of 400 units.

B) there would be a surplus of 400 units.

C) there would be a shortage of 200 units.

D) the market would be in equilibrium.

E) none of the above

21.

Refer to Figure 2. At the equilibrium price,

A) 200 units would be supplied and demanded.

B) 400 units would be supplied and demanded.

C) 600 units would be supplied and demanded.

D) 600 units would be supplied, but only 200 would be demanded.

E) none of the above

22.

Refer to Figure 2. At a price of $35,

A) there would be a shortage of 400 units.

B) there would be a surplus of 200 units.

C) there would be a surplus of 400 units.

D) the market would be in equilibrium.

E) none of the above

23.

Figure 3 (Questions 23-29)

Refer to Figure 3. Graph A shows which of the following?

A) an increase in demand

B) an increase in supply

C) an increase in quantity supplied

D) all of the above are correct

E) both A and C are correct.

24.

Refer to Figure 3. Which of the four graphs represents the market for XBOX 360’s when the price of Playstation 3’s goes down?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

25.

Refer to Figure 3. Which of the four graphs represents the market for pizzas delivered in a college town when students return to campus in September?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

26.

Refer to Figure 3. Which of the four graphs represents the market for peanut butter after a major hurricane hits the peanut-growing south?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

27.

Refer to Figure 3. Which of the four graphs represents the market for automobiles after steel becomes cheaper? A. A

A) A.

B) B

C) C

D) D

28.

Refer to Figure 3. Which of the four graphs represents the market for cars after a new restrictive government regulation is introduced?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

29.

Refer to Figure 3. Which of the four graphs shows the market for gasoline immediately before a holiday weekend when people plan to travel?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

30.

A technological advancement

A) will shift the demand curve to the right.

B) will shift the demand curve to the left.

C) will shift the supply curve to the right.

D) will shift the supply curve to the left.

31.

A new health kick has swept the nation making everyone want to exercise and be healthy. How does this affect the market for Pilates Workout DVDs?

A) increase equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

B) decrease equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

C) increase equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

D) decrease equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

32.

Coca-Cola has gone on sale. You can buy a case for only a dollar. What happens to the market for Pepsi?

A) increase equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

B) decrease equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

C) increase equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

D) decrease equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

33.

OPEC dramatically reduces the availability of crude oil. How does this affect the market for gasoline?

A) increase equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

B) decrease equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

C) increase equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

D) decrease equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

34.

The government decides to subsidize agriculture (support it with money). How does this affect the market for corn?

A) increase equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

B) decrease equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

C) increase equilibrium quantity, decrease equilibrium price.

D) decrease equilibrium quantity, increase equilibrium price.

35.

A person who lives to be on the sea in a boat would tend to have what type of demand for boats?

A) elastic

B) inelastic

C) unit elastic

D) weak

36.

Demand for a good would tend to be more elastic,

A) the greater the availability of complements.

B) the longer the period of time considered.

C) the broader the definition of the market.

D) the fewer substitutes there are.

37.

Chocolate Chip ice cream would tend to have very elastic demand because

A) other flavors of ice cream are almost perfect substitutes.

B) the market is broadly defined.

C) there are few substitutes.

D) it must be eaten quickly.

38.

Holding all other forces constant, when the price of gasoline rises, the number of gallons of gasoline demanded would fall substantially over a ten year period because

A) buyers tend to be much less sensitive to a change in price when given more time to react.

B) buyers will have substantially more income over a ten year period.

C) buyers tend to be much more sensitive to a change in price when given more time to react.

D) None of these answers are correct.

39.

Demand is unit elastic if

A) elasticity is less than 1.

B) elasticity is equal to 1.

C) elasticity is greater than 1.

D) elasticity is equal to 0.

40.

If hot dogs are an inferior good, an increase in income will result in

A) An increase in the quantity demanded for hot dogs.

B) An increase in the demand for hot dogs.

C) A decrease in the quantity demanded for hot dogs.

D) A decrease in the demand for hot dogs.

E) No change in the quantity demanded for hot dogs.

41.

Which of the following statements best reflects the law of diminishing marginal utility?

A) “I have to have a scoop of ice cream on my pie.”

B) “I’ll never get tired of your cooking.”

C) “The last bite tastes just as good as the first.”

D) “I couldn’t eat another doughnut if you paid me.”

E) “I prefer to eat several small meals a day, rather than three large ones.”

42.

Brooke is spending all of her income consuming products X and Y. If MUX / PX = 10 and MUy / Py = 6, what should Brooke do to maximize her satisfaction?

A) Buy more X and more Y.

B) Buy more X and less Y.

C) Buy less X and less Y.

D) Buy less X and more Y.

E) Make no changes

43.

While eating at Alex's "Pizza by the Slice" restaurant, Kara experiences diminishing marginal utility. She gained 10 units of satisfaction from her first slice of pizza consumed, and would only receive 5 units of satisfaction from consuming a second slice. Based on this information we can conclude that:

A) Alex may have to lower the price to convince Kara to buy a second slice

B) Kara will not eat a second slice, even if it is given to her at no charge.

C) Kara will definitely want to buy a second slice of pizza.

D) even if Kara buys a second slice, she will not buy a third slice.

economics data bank

economics data bank

Question

1) What is the difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

A) Perfect competition has a large number of small firms while monopolistic competition

does not.

B) In monopolistic competition, firms produce identical goods, while in perfect competition,

firms produce slightly different goods.

C) Perfect competition has no barriers to entry, while monopolistic competition does.

D) In perfect competition, firms produce identical goods, while in monopolistic competition,

firms produce slightly different goods.

E) Perfect competition has barriers to entry while monopolistic competition does not.

1)

2) In a perfectly competitive market, the type of decision a firm has to make is different in the short

run than in the long run. Which of the following is an example of a perfectly competitive firm's

short-run decision?

A) the profit-maximizing level of output

B) whether or not to change its plant size

C) how much to spend on advertising and sales promotion

D) what price to charge buyers for the product

E) whether or not to enter or exit an industry

2)

3) The firm's over-riding objective is to

A) maximize economic profit.

B) avoid an economic loss.

C) maximize total revenue.

D) maximize normal profit.

E) earn a normal profit.

3)

4) The price charged by a perfectly competitive firm is

A) higher the more the firm produces.

B) different than the price charged by competing firms.

C) the same as the market price.

D) indeterminate.

E) lower the more the firm produces.

4)

5) A profit-maximizing output for a single-price monopoly is determined by the intersection of the

________ curves and the profit-maximizing price is found on the ________ curve.

A) total revenue and total cost, total revenue

B) marginal cost and marginal revenue; marginal revenue

C) demand and supply; supply

D) marginal cost and marginal revenue; demand

E) marginal cost and average total cost; demand

5)

6) A single-price monopoly has marginal revenue and marginal cost equal to $19 at 15 units of

output where the price on the demand curve is $38. At this output, average total cost is $15.

What is the total profit earned?

A) $225 B) $570 C) $19 D) $285 E) $345

6)

1

7) Rate of return regulation is designed to allow a natural monopoly to

A) underestimate its average cost.

B) earn zero normal profit.

C) earn an economic profit.

D) earn a normal profit.

E) compete with any firm entering the market.

7)

8) Which of the following is true about monopolistic competition but false about perfect

competition?

A) Firms can earn an economic profit in the short run.

B) There are a large number of independently acting sellers.

C) There are no barriers to entry.

D) Firms compete on their product's price as well as its quality and marketing.

E) Firms cannot earn an economic profit in the long run.

8)

9) What does monopolistic competition have in common with monopoly?

A) mutual interdependence

B) the ability to collude with respect to price

C) a large number of firms

D) a downward-sloping demand curve

E) barriers to entry

9)

10) Firms in monopolistic competition have demand curves that are

A) U-shaped.

B) horizontal.

C) downward sloping.

D) vertical.

E) upward sloping.

10)

2

11) Kevin owns a personal training gymnasium in Orlando. The above figure shows the demand

and cost curves for his firm, which competes in a monopolistically competitive market. Kevin

will train how many clients per day?

A) between 2 and 4

B) 6

C) 10

D) 4

E) None of the above answers is correct.

11)

12) Kevin owns a personal training gymnasium in Orlando. The above figure shows the demand

and cost curves for his firm, which competes in a monopolistically competitive market. What

price will Kevin charge per session?

A) $20 B) $80 C) $60 D) $100 E) $40

12)

13) In monopolistic competition, the products of different sellers are

A) similar but slightly different.

B) unique without any close or perfect substitutes.

C) perfect substitutes.

D) identical.

E) either identical or differentiated.

13)

14) When a monopolistically competitive firm's demand curve shifts leftward, what happens to its

marginal revenue curve?

A) It disappears.

B) Nothing, the marginal revenue curve is unchanged.

C) It shifts leftward.

D) It shifts rightward.

E) None of the above is correct because the effect on the marginal revenue curve depends on

whether the demand was initially elastic or inelastic.

14)

3

15) Firms in an oligopoly

i. are independent of each others' actions.

ii. can each influence the market price.

iii. charge a price equal to marginal revenue.

A) i only

B) i and iii

C) ii only

D) iii only

E) i, ii, and iii

15)

16) When oligopolies seek to operate as a single-price monopoly, the firms produce at the point

where:

A)MR=MC.

B) P= MR.

C) P< ATC.

D) P= MC.

E)MC=ATC.

16)

17) A cartel is a collusive agreement among a number of firms that is designed to

A) expand output and lower prices but not to a predatory level.

B) expand output and lower prices to a predatory level.

C) restrict output and raise prices.

D) expand output and raise prices.

E) restrict output and lower prices to a predatory level.

17)

18) When oligopolies operate like firms in perfect competition, the firms produce at the point where

the

A) price exceeds the average total cost by the greatest amount.

B) price exceeds the marginal cost by the greatest amount.

C) marginal cost equals the average total cost.

D) price is less than the marginal cost.

E) marginal cost equals the price.

18)

19) If one firm in a duopoly increases its production by one unit beyond the monopoly output, that

firm's profit ________, the other firm's profit ________, and thetotalprofit of the duopoly

________.

A) increases; increases; increases

B) increases; decreases; decreases

C) does not change; does not change; does not change

D) increases; does not change; increases

E) increases; decreases; does not change

19)

20) A Nash equilibrium is defined as

A) each player taking the action that is best for all the players.

B) forming a cartel with strong penalties for cheaters.

C) earning zero economic profit in the long run.

D) relying on other game players to realize the benefit of cooperation.

E) each player taking the best possible action given the action of the other player.

20)

auditing and assurance 433A

auditing and assurance 433A

Question


Question 1. 1.
The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC) has oversight authority over the PCAOB. Which of the following is not within the SEC's oversight authority?

The SEC approves the PCAOB's rules
The members of the PCAOB are appointed by the SEC
The SEC approves the PCAOB's budget
The SEC determines which audit firms will be inspected by the PCAOB

Question 2. 2.
Before the creation of the PCAOB, the auditing standards of the Auditing Standards Board were used to audit all companies. Which statement best describes the PCAOB and auditing standards?

In 2003, the PCAOB adopted certain auditing standards of the ASB as interim standards
In 2003, the PCAOB developed over 100 new auditing standards
In 2003, the PCAOB developed audit standards to audit all companies, private and public
In 2003, the PCAOB adopted all the standards of the AICPA to save time in the development of new standards

Question 3. 3.Corresponds to CLO 1(c)
Which of the following is correct about the PCAOB?

The PCAOB receives its authority from the SEC
Auditing standards issued by the PCAOB must be approved by the SEC
Anyone who wants to purchase stock on a U.S. stock exchange must follow the rules of the SEC
All audit firms performing audits of public companies are registered with and agree to comply with the auditing procedures established by the PCAOB

Question 4. 4. Corresponds to CLO 1(d)
Which of the following is correct about the PCAOB? (Points : 6)

The PCAOB receives its authority from the SEC
Auditing standards issued by the PCAOB must be approved by the U.S. Congress
Anyone who wants to purchase stock on a U.S. stock exchange must follow the rules of the SEC
All audit firms performing audits of public companies are registered with and agree to comply with the auditing standards established by the PCAOB

Question 5. 5.Corresponds to CLO 2(a)
When management presents the financial statements to the auditor, management makes several assertions about the financial statements. Which of the following is not one of these assertions?

residence
valuation and allocation
accuracy
classification

Question 6. 6.Corresponds to CLO 2(b)
When management presents the financial statements to the auditor, management makes several assertions about the financial statements. Which of the following is not one of these assertions?

existence or occurrence
valuation and allocation
accuracy
categorization

Question 7. 7.Corresponds to CLO 2(c)
Which of the following are assertions about the revenue process?

existence or occurrence - for both classes of transactions and account balances
completeness - account balances
valuation and allocation - for account balances
rights and obligations - for classes of transactions and account balances
accuracy - for classes of transactions and account balances
both A and C
both B and D

Question 8. 8.Corresponds to CLO 2(d)
Which of the following are assertions about the revenue process? )

existence or occurrence - for both classes of transactions and account balances
completeness - for both classes of transactions and account balances
valuation and allocation - for classes of transactions and account balances
rights and obligations - for classes of transactions and account balances
accuracy - for classes of transactions and account balances
both A and B
both C and D
both D and E

Question 9. 9.Corresponds to CLO 3(a)
In planning the audit, the auditor makes decisions about the size of misstatements that will be considered material. These decisions allow the auditor to

determine the nature, timing, and extent of inherent risk assessment procedures
identify and assess the risk of misstatement
determine the nature, timing, and extent of audit procedures
establish an amount below which misstatements will always be evaluated as immaterial
C and D

Question 10. 10.Corresponds to CLO 3(b)
In planning the audit, the auditor makes decisions about the size of misstatements that will be considered material. These decisions allow the auditor to

determine the nature, timing, and extent of inherent risk assessment procedures
identify and assess the risk of material misstatement
determine the nature, timing, and extent of internal control procedures
establish an amount below which misstatements will always be evaluated as immaterial

Question 11. 11.Corresponds to CLO 3(c)
In the planning process, the auditor assesses the risk that misstatements have occurred in the financial statements. The source of misstatements includes (

inaccuracies in gathering or processing data used to audit the financial statements
the use of auditing standards that may be unreasonable or inappropriate
differences between the amount or classification of a financial statement item and what should have been reported under generally accepted auditing standards
omissions of financial statement explanations
financial statement disclosures that are not in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles

Question 12. 12.Corresponds to CLO 3(d)
In the planning process, the auditor assesses the risk that misstatements have occurred in the financial statements. The source of misstatements includes ()

the use of auditing standards that the auditor may consider unreasonable or inappropriate
inaccuracies in gathering or processing data used to audit the financial statements
differences between the amount or classification of a financial statement item and what should have been reported under generally accepted accounting principles
omissions of financial statement explanations
financial statement disclosures that are not in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards

Question 13. 13.Corresponds to CLO 4 (a)
Which of the following is a correct statement about internal controls? ()

The internal control function in a company is a process designed by management and others charged with governance to provide reasonable assurance that the financial statements are prepared in accordance with the COSO financial reporting framework.
Management develops internal controls to prevent or detect misstatements in the financial statements.
The auditor reviews the internal controls developed by management to assess whether the internal controls are effective in detecting misstatements.
The auditing standards define internal controls over financial statements as processes designed by management and others charged with governance to provide assurance that company responsibilities are met.

Question 14. 14.Corresponds to CLO 4 (b)
The internal control deficiencies identified in a financial statement audit may be reported in which of the following ways? (

Significant deficiencies are reported in a management letter.
Material weaknesses are verbally reported to the audit committee.
Deficiencies that fail to reach the level of significant deficiencies or material weaknesses are reported in a management letter.
Significant deficiencies and material weaknesses may be verbally reported to both management and the audit committee.

Question 15. 15.A significant deficiency is: ()

a control deficiency or a combination of control deficiencies that adversely affects the company's ability to initiate, authorize, record, process, or report internal financial data reliably in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework
a control deficiency or a combination of control deficiencies that adversely affects the company's ability to initiate, authorize, record, process, or report external financial data reliably in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework
a control deficiency or combination of control deficiencies that result in more than a remote likelihood that a material misstatement in the financial statements would not be prevented or detected
a control deficiency or combination of control deficiencies that results in a remote likelihood that a material misstatement in the financial statements would not be prevented or detected



Question 16. 16.Corresponds to CLO 4 (d)
The auditor must communicate in writing all significant deficiencies and material weaknesses to management and the audit committee. The written communication from the auditor should include:

a definition of a significant deficiency and a material weakness
a statement that the objective of the audit is to report on the financial statements and to provide assurance on internal controls
a statement that the communication is intended solely for the use of stockholders, the board of directors, the audit committee, and management
a statement that there is no such thing as absolute assurance

Question 17. 17.Corresponds to CLO 5 (a)
In the revenue business process, the auditor might perform the following analytical procedures:

Compare sales revenue, accounts receivable, sales returns and allowance, bad debt expense, and allowance for uncollectible accounts for the current year to the prior year. Investigate changes from the auditor's expectations that appear to be unreasonable.
Compare sales revenue, accounts payable, sales returns and allowance, bad debt expense, and allowance for uncollectible accounts for the current year to the prior year. Investigate changes from the auditor's expectations that appear to be unreasonable.
Calculate the accounts receivable turnover ratio and the number of days outstanding in accounts receivable for the current and prior years. Investigate a change from the auditor's expectations if it appears to be unreasonable.
Calculate the accounts receivable turnover ratio and the number of days outstanding in accounts payable for the current and prior years. Investigate a change from the auditor's expectations if it appears to be unreasonable.
Consider the number of vendor accounts for the current year and the prior year and new accounts added and lost in each year.
both A and C
both B and E

Question 18. 18.Corresponds to CLO 5 (b)
For an auditor to make the decision about whether a change noted in analytical procedures is unreasonable he needs

knowledge of the client's industry
knowledge of current political conditions
knowledge of prior economic conditions
an understanding of the client's competitors
an understanding of the business under audit
both A and E
both B and C

Question 19. 19.Corresponds to CLO 5 (c)
In sales cut-off testing, the auditor uses the inspection procedure of vouching and tracing to gather evidence about which assertion(s)?

existence and occurrence
accuracy
valuation or allocation
completeness
presentation and disclosure
both A and B
both A and D

Question 20. 20.Corresponds to CLO 5 (d)
The auditing standards presume that the auditor will request confirmation of the accounts receivable balances unless

the balance in accounts receivable is immaterial
the use of confirmations would be effective if the amounts were significant
the auditor can reduce the risk of issuing an audit opinion to an acceptable low level without confirming accounts receivable
the client believes that confirmations are not necessary

Question 21. 21.Corresponds to CLO 6 (a)
The auditor's responsibility for fraud detection is to:

plan the audit so sufficient appropriate evidence is gathered to determine whether the auditor has reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free of material misstatement from fraud or error
plan the audit so sufficient appropriate evidence is gathered to determine whether the financial statements are free of misstatement
plan the audit so sufficient appropriate evidence is gathered to determine whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement from fraud or error
plan the audit so sufficient evidence is gathered to determine whether the financial statements are free of misstatement

Question 22. 22.Corresponds to CLO 6 (b)
Three conditions are present in a company when fraud occurs. They are )

revenge, opportunity, and rationalization
pressure, revenge, and rationalization
pressure, opportunity, and rationalization
pressure, opportunity, and revenge

Question 23. 23.Corresponds to CLO 6(c)
The condition, opportunity to commit fraud, is present when)

An individual believes that he is underpaid
An individual believes that the company has plenty of money
An individual believes that the company does not deal with customers fairly
An individual believes that internal controls can be overridden

Question 24. 24.Corresponds to CLO 6 (d)
Management can override controls by )

suggesting fictitious journal entries (particularly at year end)
inappropriately changing assumptions and methods used to estimate account balances
omitting, advancing, or delaying modification of events that occurred during the reporting period
failing to disclose facts that could affect the amounts recorded in the financial statements
engaging in complex transactions designed to represent the financial condition of the company
both A and C
both B and D
both C and E

Question 25. 25.Corresponds to CLO 7 (a)
Substantive audit tests for the acquisition and expenditure process are

inspection of computer logs
internal controls
questioning
inquiry
recalculation of the assessed risk

Question 26. 26.Corresponds to CLO 7 (b)
In the acquisition and expenditure process, the auditor might perform the following analytical procedures

Compare accounts payable, accrued liabilities, cost of goods sold, and the balance in all the expense accounts for the current year to the prior year. Investigate changes from the auditor's expectations that appear to be unreasonable.
Calculate the vendor margin percentage for the current and prior years. Investigate any changes from the auditor's expectations that appear to be unreasonable.
Consider the number of vendor accounts for the current year and the prior year and the new vendors added or lost in each year.
Compare accounts payable, accrued liabilities, cost of goods available for sale, and the balance in all the expense accounts for the current year to the prior year. Investigate changes from the auditor's expectations that appear to be unreasonable.
Calculate the merchandize inventory percentage for the current and prior years. Investigate any changes from the auditor's expectations that appear to be unreasonable.
both A and C
both B and D

Question 27. 27.The auditor uses substantive tests of transactions to gather evidence for

balance sheet transactions in a business process
income statement transactions in a business process
income statement accounts in a business process
policies and procedures in a business process

Question 28. 28.Corresponds to CLO 7 (d)
An effective way to identify liabilities that were unrecorded at year-end is)

reviewing liabilities recorded after year-end
reviewing journal entries after year-end
reviewing account closings after year-end
reviewing the bills paid after year-end

Question 29. 29.Corresponds to CLO 8 (a)
In the inventory process, the auditor might perform the following analytical procedures

Compare inventory balances by category - raw material, work-in-process, and finished goods - for the current year with the prior year.
Compare inventory purchases by category - raw material, work-in-process, and finished goods - for the current year with the prior year.
Compute material margin with the current year with the prior year. Investigate any unexpected changes in the ratio.
Compute cost of goods sold with the current year with the prior year. Investigate any unexpected changes in the ratio.
Compute inventory turnover. Compare the current year's turnover to the prior year. Investigate any differences.
both A and C
both B and D
both A and E

Question 30. 30.Corresponds to CLO 8 (b)
IT technology related to inventory can be very useful in maintaining accurate records for inventory balances if

the internal controls for the technology are effectively designed to prevent or detect misstatements of purchases
the internal controls for the technology are effectively designed to prevent or detect misstatements in the financial statements
the internal controls for the technology are effectively designed to prevent or detect misstatements of inventory
the internal controls for the technology are effectively designed to prevent or detect misstatements of costs of goods sold

Question 31. 31.Corresponds to CLO 8 (c)
The transactions audited in the inventory process include

determining the correct quality of the inventory
internal controls relevant to transactions
pricing the inventory according to accounting standards
internal controls relevant to balances
valuing the year-end inventory transactions

Question 32. 32.Corresponds to CLO 8 (d)
Substantive audit procedures in the inventory process are

inspection of records, documents, or tangible assets
monitoring
inquiry
risk assessment
reviewing policies and procedures
both A and C
both B and D
both D and E

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COPY_03_5dec – 2nd

COPY_03_5dec – 2nd

Question

34) In the 1950's the American population began shifting from large cities to ________.

A)farming communities

B)ruralareas

C)foreign countries

D)suburbs

E)coastal towns

35) As more and more Americans are moving to "micropolitan areas," marketers can most reasonably assume that ________.

A)geographic segmentation may be less critical

B)ruralpopulations will offer an expanding market

C)micropolitan areas may offer the same advantages as metropolitan areas

D)congested areas may become more ensnarled

E)crime rates in metropolitan areas will increase

36) An increasing number ofAmerican workers work out of their homes with technological conveniences such as PCs, high-speed Internet access, and fax machines. These workers are referred to as the ________ market.

A)LOHAS

B)SOHO

C)Gen X

D)Millennial

E)micropolitan

37) Which of the following most accurately reflects the popularity oftelecommuting?

A)Almost all American businesses are expected to offer telecommuting options within the next decade.

B)The majority of American businesses currently offer telecommuting programs for their

employees.

C)About 40% of American businesses currently offer telecommuting programs for their employees.

D)About 25% of American businesses currently offer telecommuting programs for their employees.

E)The percentage of American businesses offering telecommuting programs is expected to decline within the next decade.

38) Over the past 50 years, which ofthe following groups of workers has become smaller?

A)managers

B)manufacturers

C)professionals

D)telecommuters

E)married women

39) Because of increasing ________, Americans will demand higher quality products, books, magazines, travel, personalcomputers, and Internet services.

A)numbers of nontraditional families

B)family size

C)levels of education

D)socialclass awareness

E)ethnic diversity

40) Which of the following is an accurate statement about the diversity of the American population?

A)African Americans represent the largest non-white segment of the population.

B)More than 12 percent of people living in the United States were born in another country.

C)The Asian American percentage ofthe population is expected to remain steady in the next 50 years.

D)In terms ofethnic diversity, the United States is about average in comparison to other

countries with populations ofa comparable size.

E) American ethnic populations are expected to slowly increase in the next few decades.

41) Of the following, which is the fastest-growing group in the United States?

A)African Americans

B)Caucasians

C)Hispanics

D)Native Americans

E)Arab Americans


42) Because ofan expected increase in ethnic populations, marketers are likely to place a greater emphasis on ________.

A)geographic segmentation

B)targeted advertising messages

C)mass marketing

D)mainstream advertising

E)cause-related marketing

.

43) Members of which of the following groups are more likely than the generalpopulation to have professional jobs, own a vacation home, own a notebook computer, and own individual stocks?

A)Gen Xers

B)gays and lesbians

C)Millennials

D)echo boomers

E)environmentalists

44) Of the following diversity segments in the American population, which is currently the largest?

A)adults with disabilities

B)Hispanics

C)African Americans

D)telecommuters

E)Asian Americans

45) The ________ environment consists of factors that affect consumer purchasing power and spending patterns.

A)cultural

B)political

C)technological

D)economic

E)natural

46) A country with a(n) ________ economy consumes most of is own agriculturaland industrial outputs and offers few market opportunities.

A)industrial

B)service

C)technological

D)subsistence

E)developed

47) A country with a(n) ________ economy has rich markets for many different kinds of goods.

A)industrial

B)service

C)rural

D)subsistence

E)multicultural

48) Value marketing is the strategy of offering consumers ________.

A)high quality at a high price

B)luxury quality at a high price

C)lesser quality at a low price

D)reasonable quality at a fair price

E)little quality at a low price

49) Which of the following statements about income distribution in the United States is NOT true?

A)In recent decades, the rich have gotten richer.

B)In recent decades, the middle class has grown.

C)In recent decades, the poor have remained poor.

D)The top 10 percent of American earners account for almost half ofall American income.

E)The top one percent of American earners receive a higher percentage of the nation's total income than do the bottom 50 percent of American earners.

14

50) In a tiered market, companies target which ofthe following?

A)affluent consumers only

B)consumers of modest means only

C)the middle class only

D)consumers at all levels of income distribution

E)professionals only

51) Which of the following combinations of expenses use up most household income?

A)food, housing, retirement planning

B)housing, insurance, taxes

C)food, housing, transportation

D)housing, taxes, transportation

E)food, travel, savings

52) Ernst Engel's laws generally have been supported by recent studies. He discovered that as family income rises, the percentage spent on ________ declines and the percentage spent on

________ remains about constant.

A)food; clothing

B)clothing; recreation/entertainment

C)savings; transportation

D)food; housing

E)recreation/entertainment; savings

53) The natural resources that are needed as inputs by marketers or that are affected by marketing activities are referred to as the ________.

A)raw material market

B)natural environment

C)endangered environment

D)green movement

E)factors ofproduction

54) Which of the following American government agencies is charged with setting and enforcing pollution standards?

A)the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

B)the Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

C)the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

D)the Consumer Product Safety Commission

E)the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission

55) What movement has encouraged marketers to pursue environmentally sustainable strategies?

A)the EPA

B)the black market

C)the green movement

D)the SOHO movement

E)green intervention

56) Which country leads the world in research and development spending?

A)England

B)Germany

C)Sweden

D)Japan

E)the United States

57) Which of the following is a result ofregulations set up by the Food and Drug Administration and the Consumer Product Safety Commission?

A)The time lag between new product ideas and their introduction to the market has decreased.

B)Spending on research and development has decreased.

C)Research costs for companies have grown.

D)More companies have failed to meet safety standards.

E)Companies are more focused on making practical, affordable versions ofproducts.

58) Marketers should be aware of laws, government agencies, and pressure groups that influence or limit various organizations and individuals in a given society. This is the ________

environment.

A)socio-legal

B)cultural

C)political

D)legal-technological

E)economic

59) Even the most liberal advocates of free-market economies agree that the system works best with ________ regulation.

A)private

B)maximum

C)intermittent

D)at least some

E)no

60) Legislation affecting business around the world will continue to ________.

A)become simplified

B)increase

C)stabilize

D)decrease

E)relax consumer protections

61) The legislation created to limit the number of commercials aired during children's programming is called the ________.

A)Children's Online Privacy Protection Act

B)Child Protection Act

C)CommercialProduct Act

D)Children's Television Act

E)Consumer Product Safety Act

62) Business legislation has been created for three basic reasons: to protect companies fromeach other, to protect consumers, and to ________.

A)protect the interests of society

B)regulate prices

C)increase world trade

D)regulate monopolies

E)promote environmental sustainability

63) The recent rash ofbusiness scandals and increased concerns about the environment have created fresh interest in the issues of________ and ________.

A)ethics; promotion responsibility

B)ethics; socialresponsibility

C)finances; employee discrimination

D)management ethics; culturalbias

E)promotion; pricing